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Following are some Microsoft 98-364 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-364 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
You execute a statement inside a transaction to delete 100 rows from a table. The transaction fails after only 40 rows
are deleted. What is the result in the database?
A. The table will be corrupted.
B. Forty (40) rows will be deleted from the table.
C. The transaction will restart.
D. No rows will be deleted from the table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have a database table named SongInformation as defined below:

98-364 exam questions-q2

You need to create a Structured Query Language (SQL) query to retrieve only the names of songs that sold more than
1000 compact discs (CDs). Which query should you use?

98-364 exam questions-q2-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You need to list the name and price of each product, sorted by price from highest to lowest. Which statement should you
use?

98-364 exam questions-q3

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a table named Product that contains the following data.

98-364 exam questions-q4

The PrcducrID column is the primary key. The CategoryID column is a foreign key to a separate table named Category.
You execute the following statement:
INSERT INTO Product
VALUES (3296, \\’Table\\’, 4444)
What is the result?
A. a foreign key constraint violation
B. a syntax error
C. a new row in the Product table
D. a primary key constraint violation
E. a new row in the Category table
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
One reason to add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a database that contains 10 terabytes of data. You need to back up the database every two hours.
Which type of backup should you use?
A. archive
B. incremental
C. partial
D. full
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
You have a user that has server roles as defined below:

98-364 exam questions-q8

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

98-364 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer:

98-364 exam questions-q8-3

QUESTION 9
You have a table that contains product IDs and product names.
You need to write an UPDATE statement to change the name of a specific product to glass.
What should you include in the update statement?
A. SET ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
B. LET ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
C. EXEC ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
D. ASSIGN ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are developing a SQL query.
Which two SQL constructs represent data manipulation language (DML) statements? Choose two.
A. SELECT EmployeeName FROM Employee WHERE EmployeeName = \\’Jack Smith\\’;
B. INSERT INTO Employee VALUES (\\’Jack Smith\\’)
C. ALTER TABLE Employee ADD EmployeeName Varchar;
D. CREATE ROW IN Employee WHERE EmployeeName = \\’Jack Smith\\’;
Correct Answer: AB
Data manipulation languages have their functional capability organized by the initial word in a statement, which is
almost always a verb. In the case of SQL, these verbs are:
SELECT … FROM … WHERE … (strictly speaking DQL)
SELECT … INTO …
INSERT INTO … VALUES …
UPDATE … SET … WHERE …
DELETE FROM … WHERE …
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_manipulation_language

QUESTION 11
You work at a restaurant and they ask you to help them with a data issue. They provide you with the following recipe
data:

98-364 exam questions-q11

You need to normalize the data to third normal form. How many tables should you create?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What defines the amount of storage space that is allocated to a value in a column?
A. format
B. key
C. data type
D. validator
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
You have a table that contains information about all students in your school.
Which SQL keyword should you use to change a student\\’s first name in the table?
A. UPDATE
B. CHANGE
C. SELECT
D. INSERT
Correct Answer: A

PS.

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Flydumps Microsoft 98-364 exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books, but logic is the main key of success, and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

QUESTION 1
The terms “bitmap,” “b-tree,” and “hash” refer to which type of database structure?
A. View
B. Function
C. Index
D. Stored procedure
E. Trigger
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
One reason to add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You have a table that contains the following data.

You break the table into the following two tables.

This process is referred to as:
A. defragmentation
B. normalization
C. fragmentation
D. denormalization
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
You have a table that contains the following data.

Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which key uniquely identifies a row in a table?
A. foreiqn
B. primary
C. local
D. superkey
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which statement creates a composite key?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named Customer and import data into the table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the 3:00 P.M. backup to your database. What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.
B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which command should you use to give a user permission to read the data in a table?
A. ALLOW SELECT
B. LET READ
C. PERMIT READ
D. GRANT SELECT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You need to enable a new employee to authenticate to your database. Which command should you use?
A. ALLOW USER
B. CREATE USER
C. ADD USER
D. INSERT USER
E. ALTER USER
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which keyword can be used in a create table statement?
A. ORDER BY
B. DISTINCT
C. GROUP BY

D. UNIQUE
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
You need to store product quantities, and you want to minimize the amount of storage space that is used. Which data type should you use?
A. INTEGER
B. DOUBLE
C. COUNT

D. FLOAT
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which statement will result in the creation of an index?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road (RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL, Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data:

You execute the following statement: INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234, 36) What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
You need to store product names that vary from three to 30 characters. You also need to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. VARCHAR (3, 30)
B. CHAR (3, 30)
C. VARCHAR (30)
D. CHAR (30)
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
One reason to create a stored procedure is to:
A. Improve performance.
B. Minimize storage space.
C. Bypass case sensitivity requirements.
D. Give the user control of the query logic.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
You have a table named Product. You create a view that includes all the products from the Product table
that are in the Furniture category.
You execute a statement on the Product table that deletes all the products in the Furniture category.
After you execute the statement, the result set of the view is:

A. Empty
B. Deleted
C. Unchanged
D. Archived

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
In SQL, an insert statement is used to add a:
A. User to a database.
B. Row of data to a table.
C. Table to a database.
D. Column to a table definition.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
You have two tables. Each table has three rows.
How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?

A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: D

Well-regarded for its level of detail, assessment features, and challenging review questions and hands-on exercises, Microsoft 98-364 helps you master the concepts and techniques that will enable you to succeed on the Microsoft 98-364 exam the first time.

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98-361 exam

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98-364

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Following are some Microsoft 98-365 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-365 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
Which is an advantage of 64-bit operating systems over 32-bit operating systems?
A. Larger amounts of accessible RAM
B. More device drivers
C. More compatible applications
D. Cheaper hardware
Correct Answer: A
Can access a larger address space.


QUESTION 2
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. While designing Windows Server 2016 for your organization, you
need to define a server role that allows a user to run more than one operating system simultaneously.
Which of the following server roles will you define?
A. Windows Deployment Services
B. Active Directory Rights Management Services
C. Active Directory Federation Services
D. Hyper-V
Correct Answer: D
In order to allow a user to run more than one operating system simultaneously, you should define the Hyper-V server
role. The Hyper-V server role is a server role of Windows Server 2016. This server role offers services for creating and
managing virtual machines and their resources. A virtual machine is a computer system that allows a user to run more
than one operating system simultaneously.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Windows Deployment Services server role allows installing and configuring Microsoft Windows operating
systems remotely on computers with PXE boot ROMs.
B: The Active Directory Rights Management Services server role enables applications to help safeguard digital
information from unauthorized use by specifying who can use the information and what they can do with it.
C: The Active Directory Federation Services server role offers Web SSO technologies for authenticating a user to
access multiple Web applications using a single user account.

QUESTION 3
Which technology provides both e-mail and database services?
A. Windows Server Enterprise Edition
B. Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Windows Server Essentials
D. Microsoft Project Server
Correct Answer: C
Windows Server Essentials (formerly Windows Small Business Server or SBS) is an integrated server suite from
Microsoft designed for running network infrastructure (both intranet management and Internet access) of small and
midsize businesses having no more than 25 users or 50 devices. Application server technologies are tightly integrated
to provide and offer management benefits such as integrated setup, enhanced monitoring, Remote Web Workplace, a
unified management console, and remote access.

QUESTION 4
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 domain-based
network. The network contains one Windows Server 2016 and twelve Windows 10 client computers.
You want to centralize management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings.
What will you do?
A. Apply NTFS permission.
B. Implement an account policy.
C. Apply an audit policy.
D. Implement a group policy.
Correct Answer: D
In order to centralize management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings in an Active
Directory environment, you should implement a group policy. A group policy that is created by an administrator affects
all
users on a computer or all users on a domain.
Group policies can be used for defining, customizing, and controlling the functioning of network resources, computers,
and operating systems. They can be set for a for users or computers in a domain. Administrators can configure group
policy settings for users as well as for computers in many ways. Group policies can be used to allow or restrict the
access of a particular program by a particular user. It can also be used to configure the desktop, the Start menu, the
taskbar,
the Control Panel, and security settings among other things.
Incorrect Answers:
A: NTFS permission allows an administrator to control which users and groups can access files and folders on an NTFS
volume.
B: An account policy controls the password expiration policy, the lockout policy, and other password features.
C: An audit policy determines whether security events are written to the security log in Event Viewer on the computer.

QUESTION 5
Where are domain user accounts managed in Windows Server?
A. Local Users and Groups console
B. Control Panel
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 based network
environment. There are thirty client computers running Windows 10 and three servers running Windows Server 2016.
You need to implement a system in the network that provides data access to heterogeneous network clients using
SMB/CIFS.
Which of the following will you use?
A. Storage area network
B. Failover clustering
C. Datafile striping
D. Network-attached storage
Correct Answer: D
You should use Network-attached storage (NAS).
Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data
access to heterogeneous network clients. NAS systems contain one or more hard disks, often arranged into logical,
redundant storage containers or RAID arrays.
It removes the responsibility of file serving from other servers on the network. NAS uses file-based protocols, such as
NFS, SMB/CIFS, or AFP.
NAS units rarely limit clients to a single protocol.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Storage Area Networks are a specialized RAID array that can be accessed by multiple servers over a specialized
network connection. A host bus adapter is required on servers that use the Storage Area Networks. The Storage Area
Networks administrator partitions the available storage into logical unit numbers and assigns them to the servers. The
disk volume shown in Disk manager is logical unit numbers. SAN use block-level protocols such as iSCSI or Fiber
Channel. They do not use SMB or CIFS.
B: Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2016 environment to provide high availability of
applications.
C: Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a
large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Hence, striping allows
quicker I/ Os by reading or writing through multiple read-write heads of the disks (which store the datafiles that have
been split) operating in parallel. This technique is of great help in parallel processing where throughput is of prime
concern.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following RAID level combinations makes RAID-10? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
(Choose two.)
A. RAID-1
B. RAID-0
C. RAID-2
D. RAID-3
Correct Answer: AB
RAID-10 is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0. It is implemented at hardware level rather than on the operating
system. It is used to connect mirrored disk pairs to form a RAID-0 array. Data is written on the striped set of disk array
as in RAID-0 and then it is mirrored as in RAID-1. Although expensive, RAID-10 provides better fault tolerance as well
as input/output performance.

QUESTION 8
By default, what port does SMTP use?
A. 80
B. 23
C. 25
D. 21
Correct Answer: C
SMTP uses TCP port 25.

QUESTION 9
What are three benefits of performing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2016? (Choose three.)
A. Option to upgrade to a Server with Desktop Experience
B. Reduced maintenance
C. Reduced attack vulnerability
D. Enhanced installation GUI
E. Lower disk space requirement
Correct Answer: BCE
Benefits of Server Core:
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-core/what-is-server-core

QUESTION 10
Which type of additional drivers does the Windows 10 installation phase prompt for?
A. Video
B. Network
C. Use
D. Storage
Correct Answer: D
You might be prompted for the mass storage device driver.
When installing Windows 10, you might see one of the following error messages:
References: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/windows-7-installation-problem-hard-drive-not-found

QUESTION 11
John works as a Consumer Support Technician for Web Tech Inc. The company provides troubleshooting support to
users.
A user named Peter is working with Windows 10. He reports that when he installs a new application on his computer,
Windows Task Manager displays that the CPU use is constantly at 100 percent. However, when he checks the desktop
and Task Manager, he finds that no program is currently open.
Which of the following tabs will John use to identify the program which uses most of the CPU time?
A. Performance tab
B. Services tab
C. Users tab
D. Processes tab
Correct Answer: D
In order to accomplish the task, John will use the Processes tab of Task Manager. The Processes tab shows a list of all
the tasks that are running on the system. It provides the Image Name, User Name, CPU time, Memory, and Description
of the processes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Performance tab of Task Manager displays only overall statistics such as CPU usage, PF usage, etc. It does not
provide information about any individual process. The following image displays the output of the Performance tab:
B: The Services tab lists the services running on the system. It does not identify the program which uses most of the
CPU time.
C: The Users tab lists the users who are currently logged in to the system. It does not identify the program which uses
most of the CPU time.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following tools will you use to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your system so that you
can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the occurrence of unexpected
changes in system behavior?
A. Server Manager
B. Task Manager
C. Windows Server Update Services
D. Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D
You should use Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your
system so that you can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the
occurrence of unexpected changes in system behavior. Reliability Monitor tracks the system\\’s reliability over time and
shows events that could potentially compromise that reliability.

QUESTION 13
The primary program to configure the Windows environment is: A. Computer Management Console
B. Control Panel
C. Server Manager
D. Registry Editor
Correct Answer: B
As with previous versions of Windows, the main graphical utility to configure the Windows environment and hardware
devices are the Control Panel.

PS.

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QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?

A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
070-410 vce
QUESTION 27
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Would be a server core install
B. No IE or taskbar, explorer or control panel
C. Would leave components
D. Would leave components
In Windows Server 2012 R2, you can remove the Server Graphical Shell, resulting in the “Minimal ServerInterface”.
This is similar to a Server with a GUI installation, but Internet Explorer 10, Windows Explorer, the desktop, and the Start screen are not installed.
Microsoft Management Console (MMC), Server Manager, and a subset of Control Panel are still present.
If the server has a full installation of Windows Server, and I need to bring the server down to minimal server interface, I only need to remove the Server-GUI-Shell.
QUESTION 28
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine
named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?

A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.
D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:  70-410 pdf
A. Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet configures features of the virtual network adapter in a virtual machine or the management operating system
B. The legacy network adapter doesn’t support bandwidth management C. The legacy network adapter doesn’t support bandwidth management D. Add a New network adapter The legacy network adapter doesn’t support bandwidth management
QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Core1, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You join Core1 to the adatum.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1.
What should you do on Core1?

A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run sconfig.exeand configure remote management
C. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
D. Run sconfiq.exeand configure the network settings.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Allows MMC snap in for Event Viewer.

B. Modifies service entries

C. Would Disable a firewall rule which was enabled

D. Modifies service entries
Enable-NetFirewallRule -DisplayGroup “Remote Event Log Management”
QUESTION 30
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when users are connected to the network, they always use local offline files that are cached from Server1.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure?

A. Configure slow-link mode.
B. Configure Slow link speed
C. Enable file synchronization on costed networks
D. Turn on economical application of Administratively assigned Offline Files.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Offline Files to provide faster access to cached files and redirected folders. B. Defines a slow connection for purposes of App1ying and updating Group Policy.
C. automatically tracks roaming and bandwidth usage limits while on metered connections D. Lists network files and folders that are always available for offline use. This policy makes the specified filesand folders available offline to users of the computer. When Offline Files is operating in the slow-link mode, all network file requests are satisfied from the OfflineFiles cache. This is similar to a user working offline. If you enable this policy setting, Offline Files uses the slow-link mode if the network throughput between theclient and the server is below (slower than) the Throughput threshold parameter, or if the round-trip networklatency is above (slower than) the Latency threshold parameter.

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