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Free CheckPoint 156-115.80 Practice Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
In order to review the IPS statistics to determine if adjustments can be made to improve performance, which command
would you use to get the appropriate information?
A. fw monitor –e “accept IPS_stats;” >> ips_statistics.xml
B. fw ctl debug –m ips debug_compilation
C. fw ctl set int enable_ips_debug_output 1
D. $FWDIR/scripts/get_ips_statistics.sh 10.1.1.1 60
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the correct command to turn off an IKE debug?
A. vpn debug ikeoff
B. fw ctl debug ikeoff
C. vpn debug ikeoff 0
D. fw ctl vpn debug ikeoff
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 3
Which of the following ports are used for SIC?
A. 18355 and 18356
B. 18210 and 18211
C. 257 and 258
D. 18192 and 18193
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here

QUESTION 4
When troubleshooting acceleration issues on a Security Gateway, you notice that the fw_worker_x process is
consuming about 100% processing power. What can be done to stop this from happening?
A. Assign more CPU cores to the system
B. Use fwaccel stop/start release process
C. Edit the registry file to increase virtual memory
D. Remove the memory file in /proc/ and recreate it
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which kernel table stores information about NAT connections?
A. connections
B. tab_nat_conn
C. xlate
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
What does the command “vpn shell tunnels delete all ike” do?
A. Delete only outbound_SPI tables
B. Deletes all IKE and IPSEC SA\\’s
C. Deletes all IKE configuration on the Gateway
D. Deletes all IKE SA\\’s
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is NOT a special consideration while running fw monitor on production firewall?
A. While executing fw monitor, you need to specify an expression so that it captures the required traffic instead of all traffic
B. While running fw monitor on a busy firewall, the –ci and –co switches can be used to limit the number of packets
captured
C. While running fw monitor, it resets all the debug flags
D. During a fw monitor, the firewall will have to process more packets because SecureXL acceleration should be
disabled
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
John works for ABC Corporation. They have enabled CoreXL on their firewall. John would like to identify the cores on
which the SND runs and the cores on which the firewall instance is running. Which command should John run to view
the CPU role allocation?
A. fw ctl affinity –v
B. fwaccel stat –l
C. fwaccel stat –l
D. fw ctl cores
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the default and maximum number of entries in the ARP Cache Table in a Check Point appliance?
A. 1,024 and 4,096
B. 4,096 and 16,384
C. 4,096 and 65,536
D. 1,024 and 16,384
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 10
Which of the following is correct in a Threat Prevention policy?
A. Threat Prevention inspects traffic to all objects specified in the Protected Scope
B. Threat Prevention inspects traffic to and/or from all objects specified in the Protected Scope
C. Threat Prevention is applied based on the profile. Protection Scope does not have any relevance
D. Threat Prevention inspects traffic from all objects specified in the protected Scope
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 11
A Firewall administrator is attempting to push a policy to a new Security Gateway for a remote office but the installation
fails. The Management Server IP is 10.1.1.101. Initial troubleshooting shows that policy is successfully transferred to the
Gateway. What command would you use to attempt to identify the cause of the issue?
A. fw ctl debug –T –f > /var/log/p_debug.txt
B. cp_merge export_policy –s 10.1.1.101 –n Standard $var/log/
C. fw ctl debug –m 10.1.1.101
D. fw fetchlocal –d $FWDIR/state/_tmp/FW1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When enabling hyper-threading on a Security Gateway, the administrator needs to make sure there is enough
_______________ to support additional CoreXL Firewall instances.
A. drive space
B. cpu\\’s
C. available cache
D. available memory
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 13
Fill in the blank. The tool ____________________ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.
A. infoCP
B. infoview
C. cpinfo
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: C

Click here to view other exam dumps questions.

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Source: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-400

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As shown in the image below:

Designing and Implementing Microsoft DevOps Solutions

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You are configuring the settings of a new Git repository in Azure Repos.
You need to ensure that pull requests in a branch meet the following criteria before they are merged:
1.
Committed code must compile successfully.
2.
Pull requests must have a Quality Gate status of Passed in SonarCloud.
Which policy type should you configure for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate policy types to the
correct requirements. Each policy type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split
bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q1

Box 1: A check-in policy
Administrators of Team Foundation version control can add check-in policy requirements. These check-in policies
require the user to take actions when they conduct a check-in to source control.
By default, the following check-in policy types are available:
1.
Builds Requires that the last build was successful before a check-in.
2.
Code Analysis Requires that code analysis is run before check-in.
3.
Work Items Requires that one or more work items be associated with the check-in.
Box 2: Build policy
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/tfvc/add-check-policies
https://azuredevopslabs.com/labs/vstsextend/sonarcloud/

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You need to deploy Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) to host an application. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
1.
Containers must only be published internally.
2.
AKS clusters must be able to create and manage containers in Azure.
What should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q2

Box 1: Azure Container Registry Azure services like Azure Container Registry (ACR) and Azure Container Instances
(ACI) can be used and connected from independent container orchestrators like kubernetes (k8s). You can set up a
custom ACR and connect it to an existing k8s cluster to ensure images will be pulled from the private container registry
instead of the public docker hub.
Box 2: An Azure service principal When you\\’re using Azure Container Registry (ACR) with Azure Kubernetes Service
(AKS), an authentication mechanism needs to be established. You can set up AKS and ACR integration during the initial
creation of your AKS cluster. To allow an AKS cluster to interact with ACR, an Azure Active Directory service principal is
used.
References: https://thorsten-hans.com/how-to-use-private-azure-container-registry-with-kubernetes
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/cluster-container-registry-integration

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains resources in several resource groups. You need to design a monitoring
strategy that will provide a consolidated view. The solution must support the following requirements:
1.
Support role-based access control (RBAQ by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) identities.
2.
Include visuals from Azure Monitor that are generated by using the Kusto query language.
3.
Support documentation written in markdown.
4.
Use the latest data available for each visual. What should you use to create the consolidated view?
A. Azure Data Explorer
B. Azure dashboards
C. Azure Monitor
D. Microsoft Power Bl
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Azure DevOps project,
The source code for the project is stored in an on-premises repository and uses on an on-premises build server.
You plan to use Azure DevOps to control the build process on the build server by using a self-hosted agent.
You need to implement the self-hosted agent.
You download and install the agent on the build server.
Which two actions should you perform next? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From Azure, create a shared access signature (SAS).
B. From the build server, create a certificate, and then upload the certificate to Azure Storage.
C. From the build server, create a certificate, and then upload the certificate to Azure Key Vault.
D. From DevOps, create a personal access token (PAT).
E. From the build server, run config.cmd.
Correct Answer: BE
B: Make sure you install your self-signed ssl server certificate into the OS certificate store.
E: When you have a self-signed SSL certificate for your on-premises TFS server, make sure to configure the Git we shipped to allow that self-signed SSL certificate.
Enable git to use SChannel during configure with 2.129.0 or higher version agent Pass –gituseschannel during agent
configuration./config.cmd –gituseschannel Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/agents/certificate

QUESTION 5
During a code review, you discover many quality issues. Many modules contain unused variables and empty catch
blocks.
You need to recommend a solution to improve the quality of the code.
What should you recommend?
A. In a Grunt build task, select Enabled from Control Options.
B. In a Maven build task, select Run PMD.
C. In a Xcode build task, select Use xcpretty from Advanced.
D. In a Gradle build task, select Run Checkstyle.
Correct Answer: B
PMD is a source code analyzer. It finds common programming flaws like unused variables, empty catch blocks,
unnecessary object creation, and so forth.
There is an Apache Maven PMD Plugin which allows you to automatically run the PMD code analysis tool on your
project\\’s source code and generate a site report with its results.
Incorrect Answers:
C: xcpretty is a fast and flexible formatter for xcodebuild. References: https://pmd.github.io/


QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP You are configuring an Azure DevOps deployment pipeline. The deployed application will authenticate to
a web service by using a secret stored in an Azure key vault. You need to use the secret in the deployment pipeline.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q6

QUESTION 7
You have a multi-tier application that has an Azure Web Apps front end and an Azure SQL Database back end.
You need to recommend a solution to capture and store telemetry data. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
1.
Support using ad-hoc queries to identify baselines.
2.
Trigger alerts when metrics in the baseline are exceeded.
3.
Store application and database metrics in a central location. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Event Hubs
B. Azure SQL Database Intelligent Insights
C. Azure Application Insights
D. Azure Log Analytics
Correct Answer: D
Azure Platform as a Service (PaaS) resources, like Azure SQL and Web Sites (Web Apps), can emit performance
metrics data natively to Log Analytics.
The Premium plan will retain up to 12 months of data, giving you an excellent baseline ability.
There are two options available in the Azure portal for analyzing data stored in Log analytics and for creating queries for
ad hoc analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Intelligent Insights analyzes database performance by comparing the database workload from the last hour with the
past seven-day baseline workload. However, we need to handle application metrics as well. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/collect-azurepass-posh

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your company has a project in Azure DevOps.
You plan to create a release pipeline that will deploy resources by using Azure Resource Manager templates. The
templates will reference secrets stored in Azure Key Vault.
You need to recommend a solution for accessing the secrets stored in the key vault during deployments. The solution
must use the principle of least privilege.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct targets.
Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q8

Management plane access control uses RBAC.
The management plane consists of operations that affect the key vault itself, such as:
Creating or deleting a key vault.
Getting a list of vaults in a subscription.
Retrieving Key Vault properties (such as SKU and tags).
Setting Key Vault access policies that control user and application access to keys and secrets.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-tutorial-use-key-vault

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso, an Azure DevOps project named Project1, an Azure
subscription named Sub1, and an Azure key vault named vault1.
You need to ensure that you can reference the values of the secrets stored in vault1 in all the pipelines of Project1. The
solution must prevent the values from being stored in the pipelines.
What should you do?
A. Create a variable group in Project1.
B. Add a secure file to Project1.
C. Modify the security settings of the pipelines.
D. Configure the security policy of Contoso.
Correct Answer: A
Use a variable group to store values that you want to control and make available across multiple pipelines.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/library/variable-groups

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a project in Azure DevOps for a new web application.
You need to ensure that when code is checked in, a build runs automatically.
Solution: From the Pre-deployment conditions settings of the release pipeline, you select Batch changes while a build is
in progress.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, In Visual Designer, you enable continuous integration (CI) by:
1.
Select the Triggers tab.
2.
Enable Continuous integration.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/get-started-designer

QUESTION 11
You have a private GitHub repository.
You need to display the commit status of the repository on Azure Boards.
What should you do first?
A. Create a GitHub action in GitHub.
B. Add the Azure Pipelines app to the GitHub repository.
C. Configure multi-factor authentication (MFA) for your GitHub account.
D. Add the Azure Boards app to the repository.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You administer an Azure DevOps project that includes package feeds.
You need to ensure that developers can unlist and deprecate packages. The solution must use the principle of least
privilege.
Which access level should you grant to the developers?
A. Collaborator
B. Contributor
C. Owner
Correct Answer: B
Feeds have four levels of access: Owners, Contributors, Collaborators, and Readers. Owners can add any type of
identity-individuals, teams, and groups-to any access level.

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/artifacts/feeds/feed-permissions

QUESTION 13
Your company uses the following resources:
1.
Windows Server 2019 container images hosted in an Azure Container Registry
2.
Azure virtual machines that run the latest version of Ubuntu An Azure
3.
Log Analytics workspace Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
4.
An Azure key vault
For which two resources can you receive vulnerability assessments in Azure Security Center?
Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. the Azure Log Analytics workspace
B. the Azure key vault
C. the Azure virtual machines that run the latest version of Ubuntu
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
E. the Windows Server 2019 container images hosted in the Azure Container Registry
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Microsoft-technet 350-401 exam questions-q1

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch, However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch, However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance

Microsoft-technet 350-401 exam questions-q1-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?
A. router with the highest priority
B. router with the highest loopback address
C. router with the lowest loopback address
D. router with the lowest priority
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What is the structure of a JSON web token?
A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature
B. header and payload
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?
A. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks.
B. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic.
C. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay.
D. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)
A. IP prefix list-based
B. IPsec
C. TACACS-based authentication
D. IP access list-based
E. Encrypted authentication
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device.

Microsoft-technet 350-401 exam questions-q6

What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device?
A. A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fails, a database is checked?
B. A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fails, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fails. a local database
is checked.
C. A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADIUS server is
checked.
D. A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?
A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer
finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The
engineer also notices these message logs.

Microsoft-technet 350-401 exam questions-q8

Which action reduces the user impact?
A. increase the AP heartbeat timeout
B. increase BandSelect
C. enable coverage hole detection
D. increase the dynamic channel assignment interval
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 9

Microsoft-technet 350-401 exam questions-q9

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches.
An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?

Microsoft-technet 350-401 exam questions-q9-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle VM VirtualBox
B. Microsoft Hyper-V
C. VMware server
D. VMware ESX
E. Microsoft Virtual PC
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 11
Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?
A. efficient scalability
B. virtualization
C. storage capacity
D. supported systems
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
What is the benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?
A. faster deployment times because the additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased
B. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other
C. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises
D. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite?
A. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities.
B. Route targets control of the import and export of routes into a customer routing table.
C. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses.
D. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A customer produces light projection toys for holiday decorations throughout the year. The production process creates
the projections toy at the following work cells stands, main assembly, electric, visuals, and packaging.
Vendors must create visual templates for the company for each season. They must manage the transfer of visual
templates to the warehouse. Each transfer for each vendor must use the same purchase agreement.
You need to configure the subcontracted transfer activity.
What should you do?
A. Set the transfer Freighted by value to Carrier. Ensure that purchase agreements include the vendor ID of the vendor.
B. Set the transfer Freighted by value to Shipper. Ensure that purchase agreements include the vendor ID of the
vendor.
C. Set the transfer activity Freighted by value to Recipient. Ensure that purchase agreements include the vendor ID of
the warehouse.
D. Set the transfer activity Freighted by value to Carrier. Ensure that purchase agreements include the vendor ID of the
warehouse.
E. Set the transfer activity Freighted by value to Shipper. Ensure that purchase agreements include the vendor ID of the
warehouse.
F. Set the transfer activity Freighted by value to Recipient. Ensure that purchase agreements include the vendor ID of
the vendor.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/production-control/activitybased-subcontracting#subcontracted-transfer-activities

QUESTION 2
You are the product manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for managing product compliance
standards and reporting.
Chemical product, C00D1 can be sold in all parts of the United States except for the state of California.
You need to set up these compliance requirements for C0001.
Which four actions should be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q2

QUESTION 3
You are a manufacturing consultant helping a client test out different bill of material (BOM) and route consumption
options when starting production orders. Material and labor consumption are to be completed before Report as finish.
You are running a production order with BOM lines that have a Flushing principle set to Start. The Automatic Route
Consumption Runtime has been set to Yes.
You have set up the default Start user options for all production orders as shown in the exhibit below.
Hot Area: 

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q2-2

 

Hot Area:

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
A company produces paints and assembles bicycle frames.
You must account for paint drying time before assembly operations can begin. You need to set up the operation to
encompass queue times.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents part of solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Enter a value in the queue time after field for the painting operation
B. Make a resource group for each size and color and assign that group to the operation
C. Enter a value in the transit time on the painting operation
D. Enter a value in the queue time before field for the assembly operation
E. Build capabilities for each resource related to color
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 5
A manufacturer uses discreet orders and manually consumes raw material after reporting products as finished.
You are performing an end-of-month closing for remaining picking lists on production orders. You must not be required
to consume the full amount of material on production order picking lists as a result of improved production efficiency.
When the production manager verifies that no material is left to consume, there are remaining back-ordered amounts.
You need to pick the line item short and eliminate the remaining demand.
What should you do?
A. Delete the item from the Bill of materials for the finished good.
B. Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used, and delete the remaining amount.
C. Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used and select end on the production order
picking list.
D. Change the Coverage group on item option to manual.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A manufacturing company is implementing Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company uses a standard
costing model to value inventory.
During the setup of the system, all areas that impact the standard cost of the item must be configured correctly to
calculate a complete standard cost by using routing, Bill of materials (BOM) and overhead burden.
You need to verify that all areas of the system are correctly configured.
Which object does NOT impact the standard cost of manufactured items?
A. item group
B. cost groups
C. cost categories
D. BOM formula
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A company plans to implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to determine which manufacturing solutions to use.
Which manufacturing solution should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each
source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
A company that uses Lean manufacturing concepts to produce paper plates has redesigned the layout of the
warehouse and production floor.
The company\\’s production flow activities no longer match the tasks of the workers. Employees use paper and manual
communication to complete the tasks.
You need to update the production flows to match their current processes by deactivating the obsolete production flows
and creating new ones.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q8

QUESTION 9
A manufacturer produces HDMI cables. Typically, the item is manufactured.
The manufacturer will occasionally buy unbranded HDMI cables from a vendor in order to keep up with demand. The
company must use the same item number whether they make or buy the item.
What should you do?
A. Select route type as vendor on the route operation when the item is to be purchased.
B. In default order settings, select Production for the default order type
C. Create a new vendor resource when the item is to be purchased
D. In default order settings, select Purchase for the default order type
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
You are the production supervisor in charge of setting effective cost prices for the labor force in a manufacturing
company. It is the end of the year and the labor rates have been recalculated based on new salary data. You need to
update the effective labor costs for all labor groups.
Which element must be updated?
A. cost groups
B. shared category
C. resource group
D. cost category
E. production orders
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A company manufactures automobile engines.
You must create product configurations for values that are used in different types of engines. Each value is based on a
master valve design. Different gaskets and fittings are used to allow valves to work with different engines.
You need to translate production plans into Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations elements.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet mb-320 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
A manufacturing company uses discreet manufacturing to make skateboards. Production order picking lists are
manually posted after finished goods are reported as finished.
A production order has six picking lists posted. The quantities on the picking lists do not match any of the reported or
finished quantities. This causes an inventory error for the raw materials. All raw material transactions must be tracked
on
production order and reconciled.
You need to process a single picking list for each production order.
What should you do first?
A. Create a movement journal and select the proper account for production postings to reconcile the inventory that was
posted in error
B. Delete the six posted picking list journals
C. Create a production picking list. When creating lines select option Full reversal.
D. Create a counting journal to reconcile the inventory that was posted in error.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
You are the lead product design manager at a Process manufacturing plant.
You are building a formula that produces egg yolks as a by-product. This by-product is added back into inventory at
standard cost and can be used in other production batches.
You need to select the by-product cost allocation.
Which cost allocation type should you use?
A. Per series
B. Per quantity
C. Recycled
D. Percent
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
In this section, you\\’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a
unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals Any of the
solutions
might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result. these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Note This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario Each question in the series contains a
unique solution Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso com has the following configurationMicrosoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q1

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device
registration You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment. Solution You raise the domain
functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2.
DC2 is a virtual machine that is hosted on a Hyper-V host named HyperV1. DC1 holds the PDC emulator operations
master role.
You need to create a new domain controller named DC3 by using domain controller cloning.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence before you can import the cloned virtual machine? To answer, move
the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Hyper-V servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has Windows Server 2012 R2
installed. Server2 has Windows Server 2016 installed.
You perform a live migration of a virtual machine named VM1 from Server1 to Server2.
You need to create a production checkpoint for VM1 on Server2.
Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate Windows
PowerShell cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The server has an application named App1. App1 writes entries to the Application event log when errors are encountered. The events have IDs of either 111 or 112.
You need to restart the service whenever either of these events is logged.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-SMServerEvent cmdlet and pipe the output to the Start- NetEventSession
cmdlet.
B. From Event Viewer, create a subscription that has a filter for the event IDs.
C. From Event Viewer, use the Create Basic Task Wizard for each event ID.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-Event cmdlet and pipe the output to the Start-NetEventSession cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com The domain contains Network load Balancing
(NLB) cluster as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Which hosts will respond to requests sent to
nlb.adatum.com?

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q5

A. Server1 only
B. Server2 only
C. Server1 an Server2 only
D. Server1 ,Server2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are
connected to the same network. On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machines shown in the following table. Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q6

All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2. The solution must
ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?
A. On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
B. On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
C. Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
D. Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server1 you use the Basic template to create a new Data Collector Set named CollectorSet1.
You need to configure data collection for the performance counters. The configuration must support the following
requirements:
Data collection must run on a schedule.
Data collection must stop if there is less than 1 GB of free disk space.
What should you modify to meet each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate settings to the correct
requirements. Each setting may be used once, more than once, or nor at all. You may need to drag the Split bar
between panes or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q7

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a new file server named Server1 that runs a
Server Core installation of Windows Server 2016. Server1 has an ReFS-formatted volume D: and NTFS-formatted
volume E: The volumes do not contain any data.
You install the Data Deduplication role service on Server1.
You need to implement Data Deduplication for volumes on D: and E:.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Format-Volume D: -FileSystem EXFat and Enable-DeDupVolume
-Volume D:,E:.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled. You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an
Active Directory group named Group1 an hour ago. You need to restore the membership of Group1. What should you
do?
A. Perform tombstone reanimation.
B. Export and import data by using Dsamain.
C. Perform a non-authoritative restore.
D. Recover the items by using Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Correct Answer: B
A group has been modified. Nothing has been deleted. Therefore, answers A and D will not work. Answer C would work
if it was an authoritative restore, but not a non-authoritative restore. The solution is to recover an earlier copy of the
group from a backup or active directory snapshot by using DSadmain.

QUESTION 10
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2016. You run the commands shown in the following output PS G:\> GetDedupVolume | f1

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q10-2

DC01.vhd will not be processed by deduplication because it was last written to on 6/21/2016 and the current date is
6/21/2016, while the “MinimumFileAgeDays = 3”. This means that a file must be unchanged for at least 3 days to be
processed by deduplication
Readme.txt will not be processed by deduplication because its filesize is 12400 bytes, but the “MinimumFileSize =
32768″.
Software.Iso will be processed by deduplication. It is above the MinimumFileSize, and has not been modified for more
than 3 days.

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You create a storage pool named Pool1. Pool1 contains three disks.
You need to create a two-way mirror storage space from the disks in Pool1.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Microsoft-technet 70-740 exam questions-q11

https://charbelnemnom.com/2014/09/step-by-step-how-to-create-a-two-way-mirrored-storage-space-via-powershellstoragespaces-powershell/

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to install the DNS Server role on Server1.
What should you run?
A. the dnscmd.exe command
B. the Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature cmdlet
C. the dns.exe command
D. the setup.exe command
E. the Install-Package cmdle
F. the optionalfeatures.exe command
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/servermanager/installwindowsfeature?view=winserver2012r2-ps

QUESTION 13
Nano Server is foundational to the modern datacenter and is useful in two core scenarios: As a private cloud
infrastructure it\\’s particularly useful for clustered Hyper-V, clustered storage and core networking services scenarios; or
as an application platform it\\’s highly optimized for modern distributed and cloud-based apps which leverage containers
and micro service architectures.
Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?
A local interface with UI support is available for offline management of Nano Servers?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
A local interface with UI support is NOT available for Nano servers. You must administer them remotely using
PowerShell.

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QUESTION 1
Which two products empower customers to create secure next-gen networks? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. AMP
C. MFA
D. ACI
E. SD-Access
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic URL filtering
B. advanced analytics
C. dynamic data analysis
D. intrusion analysis
E. reputation analytics
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
What is a continuous protection feature of Advanced Malware Protection?
A. Behavioral Indicators of Compromise
B. Sandboxing File Analysis
C. Global Threat Intelligence
D. File Reputation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
How does AMP\\’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
B. It increases the accuracy of threat detection with Big Data analytics
C. It enables point in time detection through a one-to-one engine
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are the three security blind spots that must be addressed? (Choose three.)
A. IT
B. Workloads
C. Applications
D. Networks
E. Email
F. Data
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
What are the main features of Umbrella for Cloud-Delivered Security?
A. Protects users against DDOS attacks
B. Blocks malware, C2 callbacks, and phishing over any port/protocol
C. Runs suspicious cloud applications in a sandbox environment
D. Handles 130B+ DNS requests daily with 99% uptime
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What is an attribute of Cisco Talos?
A. Real-time threat information
B. 3rd party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. Blocks threats in real-time
D. Detection of threats communicated within 48 hours of the occurrence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are two core functionalities of DNS-layer security? (Choose two.)
A. Live threat intelligence
B. Real-time sandboxing
C. Proxy and file inspection
D. Data analytics and monitoring
E. URL filtering
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
In the Campus NGFW use case, which capability is provided by NGFW and NGIPS?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domains against threats
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two security areas are part of Cisco\\’s campus and branch solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Network Analytics
B. Mobile Access
C. Behavioral Indication of Compromise
D. Remote Access VPN
E. File Retrospection and Trajectory
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
What is a key feature of Application Visibility and Control?
A. Automated remediation APIs
B. Retrospective security
C. Scalable policy inheritance
D. Control of protocol-hopping apps that evade traditional firewalls
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q1

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q1-2

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code must be added to this code snippet to allow an application to pull the next set of
paginated items?
A. requests.get(url, links=[`next\\’][`url\\’])
B. requests.get(url, headers=links[`next\\’][`url\\’])
C. requests.get(res.links[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
D. requests.get(res.headers.get(`Link”)[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two situations are flagged by software tools designed for dependency checking in continuous integration
environments, such as OWASP? (Choose two.)
A. publicly disclosed vulnerabilities related to the included dependencies
B. mismatches in coding styles and conventions in the included dependencies
C. incompatible licenses in the included dependencies
D. test case failures introduced by bugs in the included dependencies
E. buffer overflows to occur as the result of a combination of the included dependencies
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?
A. 202
B. 401
C. 429
D. 503
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two techniques protect against injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. input validation
B. trim whitespace
C. limit text areas to 255 characters
D. string escaping of user free text and data entry
E. only use dropdown, checkbox, and radio button fields
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”.
What is the expected output of this command?
A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”
B. error message because the Value field was not specified
C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase
D. list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct data processing techniques on the right, in the context of
GDPR.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
A web application is susceptible to cross-site scripting. Which two methods allow this issue to be mitigated? (Choose
two.)
A. Use only drop downs.
B. Limit user input to acceptable characters.
C. Encrypt user input on the client side.
D. Use AES encryption to secure the script.
E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit. A system administrator has installed a Linux-based alarm system in their home that can execute a
Bash shell script when an intruder is detected. Drag and drop the code snippets from the left onto the item numbers on
the right that match the missing sections in the exhibit to create a chat-ops script that will notify of alarms via the Webex
Teams REST API. Not all code snippets are used.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. a developer created the code, but it fails to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the
issue?

Microsoft-technet 350-901 exam questions-q9-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two methods are API security best practices? (Choose two.)
A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established.
B. Use the same operating system throughout the infrastructure.
C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data.
D. Use basic auth credentials over all internal API interactions.
E. Use cloud hosting services to manage security configuration.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which RFC5988 (Web Linking) relation type is used in the Link header to control pagination in APIs?
A. rel=”index”
B. rel=”page”
C. rel=”next”
D. rel=”section”
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Application sometimes store configuration as constants in the code, which is a violation of strict separation of
configuration from code. Where should application configuration be stored?
A. environment variables
B. YAML files
C. Python libraries
D. Dockerfiles
E. INI files
Correct Answer: B

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Question No 21:
You have a DNS server named Served that has a Server Core Installation on Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to view the time-to-live (TTL) value of a name server (NS) record that is cached by the DNS
Server service on Server1.What should you run?
A.
Show-DNSServerCache
B.
Nslookup.exe
C.
Ipconfig.exe /displaydns
D.
Dnscacheugc.exe
Answer: A

Question No 22:
You have a DNS server named DN51 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On DNS1, you create a standard primary DNS zone named adatum.com.
You need to change the frequency that secondary name servers will replicate the zone from DNS1.
Which type of DNS record should you modify?
A.
Name server (NS)
B.
Start of authority (SOA)
C.
Host information (HINFO)
D.
Service location (SRV)
Answer: B

Question No 23:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and
fabrikam.com. All of the DNS servers in both of the domains run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 hosts an Active Directoryintegrated
zone for contoso.com. Server2 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for fabrikam.com.
Server1 and Server2 connect to each other by using a WAN link.
Client computers that connect to Server1 for name resolution cannot resolve names in fabnkam.com.
You need to configure Server1 to support the resolution of names in fabnkam.com. The solution must
ensure that users in contoso.com can resolve names in fabrikam.com if the WAN link fails.
What should you do on Server1?
A.
Create a stub zone.
B.
Add a forwarder.
C.
Create a secondary zone.
D.
Create a conditional forwarder.
Answer: C

Question No 24:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run
Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains 200 Group Policy objects (GPOs).
An administrator named Admin1 must be able to add new WMI filters from the Group Policy Management
Console (GPMC).
You need to delegate the required permissions to Admin1. The solution must minimize the number of
permissions assigned to Admin1.
What should you do?
A.
From Active Directory Users and Computers, add Admin1 to the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers__group.
B.
From Group Policy Management, assign Creator Owner to Admin1 for the WMI Filters container.
C.
From Active Directory Users and Computers, add Admin1 to the Domain Admins group.
D.
From Group Policy Management, assign Full control to Admin1 for the WMI Filters container.
Answer: D

Question No 25:
Your network contains two DNS servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com. Server2 hosts a secondary zone for contoso.com.
You need to ensure that Server2 replicates changes to the contoso.com zone every five minutes.
Which setting should you modify in the start of authority (SOA) record?
A.
Retry interval
B.
Expires after
C.
Minimum (default) TTL
D.
Refresh interval
Answer: D

Question No 26:
Your network contains two Active Directory domains named contoso.com and adatum.com.
The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DNS
Server server role installed. Server1 has a copy of the contoso.com DNS zone.
You need to configure Server1 to resolve names in the adatum.com domain. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Prevent the need to change the configuration of the current name servers that host zones for adatum.com.
Minimize administrative effort.
Which type of zone should you create?

A. Secondary
B. Stub
C. Reverse lookup
D. Primary
Answer: B

Question No 27:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains six domain
controllers named DC1, DC2, DC3, DC4, DC5, and DC6. Each domain controller has the DNS Server
server role installed and hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for contoso.com.
You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone named litwareinc.com that will be used for
testing.
You need to ensure that the new zone will be available only on DC5 and DCG.
What should you do first?
A.
Change the zone replication scope.
B.
Create an Active Directory connection object.
C.
Create an Active Directory site link.
D.
Create an application directory partition.
Answer: D

Question No 28:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named NPS1 that has the Network Policy Server server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012
R2.
You install the Remote Access server role on 10 servers.
You need to ensure that all of the Remote Access servers use the same network policies.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A.
Configure each Remote Access server to use the Routing and Remote Access service (RRAS) to
authenticate connection requests.
B.
On NPS1, create a remote RADIUS server group. Add all of the Remote Access servers to the remote
RADIUS server group.
C.
On NPS1, create a new connection request policy and add a Tunnel-Type and a Service-Type
condition.
D.
Configure each Remote Access server to use a RADIUS server named NPS1.
E.
On NPS1, create a RADIUS client template and use the template to create RADIUS clients.
Answer: C, D

Question No 29:
Your network contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server
role installed.
All of the network access servers forward connection requests to Server1.
You create a new network policy on Server1.
You need to ensure that the new policy applies only to connection requests from the 192.168.0.0/24 subnet.
What should you do?
A.
Set the Client IP4 Address condition to 192.168.0.0/24.
B.
Set the Client IP4 Address condition to 192.168.0.
C.
Set the Called Station ID constraint to 192.168.0.0/24.
D.
Set the Called Station ID constraint to 192.168.0.
Answer: B

Question No 30:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 P.2. Server1 has the Network Policy and Access Services
server role installed.
You plan to deploy 802. lx authentication to secure the wireless network. You need to identify which
Network Policy Server (NPS) authentication method supports certificate-based mutual authentication for the
802.1x deployment. Which authentication method should you identify?
A.
MS-CHAP
B.
PEAP-MS-CHAPv2
C.
EAP-TLS
D.
MS-CHAP v2
Answer: C

200-105 exam Question No 31:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains client
computers that run either Windows XP or Windows 8.
Network Policy Server (NPS) is deployed to the domain.
You plan to create a system health validator (SHV).
You need to identify which policy settings can be applied to all of the computers.
Which three policy settings should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
three.)
A.
Antispyware is up to date.
B.
Automatic updating is enabled.
C.
Antivirus is up to date.
D.
A firewall is enabled for all network connections.
E.
An antispyware application is on.
Answer: B, C, D 

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Question: 21

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. A network administrator changes the IP address of a file server. Employees are unable to connect to the file server. You need to ensure that the employees are able to connect to the file server immediately. What should you do?
A. Instruct the employees to run the ipconfig /renew command.
B. Update the Hosts file on the file server with the new IP address.
C. Run a remote Windows PowerShell script to flush the DNS resolver cache on each computer.
D. Run a remote Windows PowerShell script to run the netstat command on each computer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This example wil flush the DNS resolver cache on the remote computer named “SVR1”
Run-RemoteCMD SVR1
Enter command to run: ipconfig /flushdns

B. could work but this requires an immediate solution.
Question: 22

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named contoso.com. Employees access the company intranet site at . The Test team must be able to access a new version of  before the site is in production. You need to ensure that the Test team can access the new version of the site without affecting other employees’ access to the current site. What should you do?
A. Create a DNS record for app.contoso.com that specifies the IP address of the test server.
B. Create a Windows Firewall rule that blocks access to the IP address of the test server on the employees’ computers.
C. Create a Windows Firewall rule that allows access to the IP address of the test server on the Test team’s computers.
D. Add an entry to the Hosts file that specifies app.contoso.com and the IP address of the test server on the Test team’s computers.

Answer: D
Question: 23
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. You deploy network printers. You need to ensure that employees are able to find these printers. What should you do first?
A. Ensure that your print servers include Windows 7 print drivers.
B. In the Location Aware Printing applet, choose the Change my default printer when I change networks setting.
C. Create a group policy to enable the Automatically publish new printers in Active Directory policy.
D. Create a group policy to enable the Prune printers that are not automatically republished policy. In the Prune non-republishing printers drop-down list, select the Whenever printer is not found option.

Answer: C
Explanation:

Question: 24
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. An employee installs several new applications on a computer. After the applications are installed, the computer takes longer to start. You need to reduce the startup process time. What should you do?
A. Run the msconfig tool.
B. Run the bcdedit command.
C. Use the Services console to stop the applications.
D. Use the Task Manager tool to stop the applications.

Answer: A
Question: 25
Your company network has 500 client computers that run Windows 7. Your team consists of 20 desktop support technicians. Two technicians troubleshoot a hardware-related performance issue on a computer. The technicians obtain different results by using their own User Defined Data Collector Sets. You need to create a standardized Data Collector Set on a network share that is accessible to your team. What should you create?
A. Event Trace Data Collector Set
B. Performance Counter Data Collector Set
C. Performance Counter Alert Data Collector Set
D. System Configuration Information Data Collector Set

Answer: B
Question: 26
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. Each computer has four 1-GB RAM modules and a single physical disk. When the employees run a three-dimensional (3-D) design application that extensively uses the RAM, they experience slow performance on their computers. You discover that the swap files on the computers are extensively used. You need to improve the performance of the computers. What should you do?
A. Disable the hardware acceleration setting on the computers.
B. Replace the four 1-GB RAM modules on the computers with two 2-GB RAM modules.
C. Move the page file to the same directory that contains the executable file for the 3-D design application.
D. Configure the virtual memory on the computers so that the initial size of the virtual memory is equal to the maximum size of the virtual memory.

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. Each computer has the following components:
.
Single quad-core processor

.
8 GB of RAM

.
250-GB hard disk drive The hard disk drive is partitioned into drive C for the operating system and drive D for the user data. Employees run an application that generates large reports. These reports take too long to generate on the computers. You confirm that processor time and memory are acceptable. You need to identify why these reports are generating slowly. You create a User Defined Data Collector Set. What should you include in this set?

A.
Memory\Available Mbytes and Memory\% Committed Bytes In Use counters

B.
Process\% Privileged Time and Process\% User Time counters for each processor core

C.
Physical Disk\ Avg. Disk Queue Length and Physical Disk\% Disk Time counters for Disk0 of the computers

D.
Logical Disk\Free Megabytes and Logical Disk\% Free Space counters for the user data drives of the computers

Answer: C
Question: 28
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. The Finance department staff run an application that collects data from 09:30 hours to 15:00 hours everyday. After data collection, the application generates reports that contain data aggregation for the day and the previous week.
During report generation, the Finance department staff experience slow performance on their computers. You discover that the usage of the processor on these computers is between 90 and 100 percent. You need to reduce the impact of report generation on the Finance computers. What should you do?
A. Set the priority of the application to Low.
B. Set the priority of the application to Real-time.
C. Configure the processor affinity mask to ensure that the application uses all the available processors.
D. Modify the memory settings of the computers to optimize the performance of the background applications.

Answer: A

Question: 29

Multiple users report that their Windows 7 computers take longer to start than when their computers were first installed. A help desk technician reports that the problem is related to installed applications. You need to recommend a solution that identifies the applications that run during the startup process. What should you recommend?
A. Event Forwarding
B. MSConfig.exe
C. Problem Steps Recorder
D. Reliability Monitor
Question: 30

Your company has a main office and a branch office. The network contains a single Active Directory domain. All computers are members of the domain. Five users in the branch office report that their Windows 7 computer is slow when it runs multiple applications. From your computer, you need to identify the application that uses the most processor on the computers. Which tool should you use?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Reliability Monitor
C. Resource Monitor
D. System Information

Answer: A

Question: 31
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The network contains a single Active Directory domain. All servers and client computers are members of the domain. A print server is located in the branch office. All other servers are located in the main office. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows 7. Users in the branch office report poor performance when they access an intranet Web site in the main office. You need to recommend changes to the network to improve the performance of intranet access by computers in the branch office. What should you recommend implementing?
A. A VPN
B. BranchCache
C. HTTP redirect
D. WebDav

Answer: B
Question: 32
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

The branch office contains the following wireless devices:
.
A phone system that uses the 5.8 GHz wireless spectrum

.
A wireless access point that uses 802.11b

.
Printers that are compatible with 802.11b and 802.11g

.
100 portable computers that use 802.11b and 802.11g
Users report that they have an intermittent connection to the wireless access point. You need to
recommend a solution that ensures that users can connect to the wireless access point at all times.
What should you recommend?
A.
Move the wireless printers to the reception area.
B.
Move the wireless access point to another location.
C.
Replace the phone system with a DECT 6.0 phone system.
D.
Replace the wireless access point with an 802.11g wireless access point.
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. After the installation of a third-party defragmentation tool, several employees are unable to start their portable computers in normal or safe modes. The Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) recovery partition is not installed on the computers. The Boot Configuration Database (BCD) has also been corrupted. You need to repair the BCD so that the computers can start. What should you do?
A. Create a new system repair disc and run the System Image Recovery tool on the employee computers.
B. Create a new system repair disc and run the Startup Repair recovery tool on the employee computers.
C. Start each computer from the installation DVD. Select the Last Known Good Configuration advanced boot option.
D. Start each computer from the installation DVD. In the System Recovery Options dialog box, select the System Restore recovery tool.

Answer: B
Question: 34
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. You discover that memory usage on the computers is high. You need to find the cause of the issue. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows Memory Diagnostic tool on each computer.
B. Run the Resource Monitor tool and review the content in the Memory tab.
C. Open Action Center and run the Hardware and Devices troubleshooting program.
D. Open Performance Information and Tools and view the Windows Experience Index.

Answer: B
Explanation:

Question: 35
All computers on your company network run Windows 7. Several support requests have been made
by employees who have recently had hardware upgrades to their computers. Each request states
that the employee’s computer restarts automatically at random times.
You examine one of the computers and verify the following information:

.
Only approved applications and processes are run on the computer.
.
All updates to the operating system and applications have been applied to the computer.
.
No malicious software is found on the computer.
You need to find out why the computers are restarting automatically.
What should you do?
A.
Run the Windows Memory Diagnostic tool.
B.
Run the fixmbr command from the Recovery Console.
C.
Run the fixboot command from the Recovery Console.
D.
Run the Check for performance issues Control Panel tool.
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question: 36

Your company has a main office and a branch office. A user from the branch office reports that he receives stop errors on his desktop computer. A help desk technician reports that the errors are caused by a defective internal smart card reader. You plan to remove the smart card reader next week. You need to recommend a solution that prevents the stop errors from re-occurring when the computer is restarted. What should you recommend?
A. Modify the Data Execution Protection (DEP) settings.
B. From Device Manager, disable the smart card reader.
C. From Device Manager, uninstall the smart card reader.
D. From the Trusted Platform Management (TPM) console, turn off TPM.

Answer: B

Question: 37

Your company has a branch office. The office has two 48-port network switches named Switch1 and Switch2. The company purchases several new computers that have identical hardware. The new computers run Windows 7. The help desk reports that the new computers that connect to Switch1 are unable to connect to network resources and do not receive IP configurations from the DHCP server. Existing computers that connect to Switch1 can access network resources. The new computers that connect to Switch2 can also access network resources. You need to ensure that all computers can connect to network resources. What should you do?
A. Re-install the network card driver.
B. Disable IPv6 on the network interface.
C. Disable and then enable the network interface.
D. Disable the AutoNegotiation setting on the network interface.

The users on your network have portable computers that run Windows 7 Ultimate. Some users report that the batteries on their computers lose their charge faster than before. You need to identify which batteries to replace. What should you do?
A. From each computer, run Powercfg.exe.
B. From each computer, run Windows Resource Monitor.
C. From a network server, run Msconfig.exe.
D. From a network server, run System Information.

Answer: A
Question: 39
The help desk reports that several computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise have bad sectors on their hard drives. You need to minimize the loss of data on the computers caused by storing data on the bad sectors. What should you instruct the help desk to do?
A. Run chkdsk.exe /r.
B. Run defrag.exe c: /a.
C. Modify the System Protection settings.
D. Modify the Write Caching Policy for the disk.

Answer: A
Explanation:
chkdsk.exe
Check Disk -check and repair disk problems
Syntax: CHKDSK [drive:] [[path] filename] [/F] [/V] [/R] [/L [: size]]
Key
[drive:] The drive to check.
Filename File(s) to check for fragmentation (FAT only).
/F Automatically Fix file system errors on the disk.
/X Fix file system errors on the disk, (Win2003 and above) dismounts the volume first, closing all
open file handles.
/R Scan for and attempt Recovery of bad sectors.
/V Display the full path and name of every file on the disk.

/L: size NTFS only: change the log file size to the specified number of kilobytes.
If size is not specified, displays the current log size and the drive type (FAT or NTFS).
/C Skip directory corruption checks.
/I Skip corruption checks that compare directory entries to the file record segment (FRS) in the
volume’s master file table (MFT)

Question: 40

All client computers on your network have identical hardware. Your network adapter vendor releases a new driver. Several users install the new driver. The help desk technicians report that several users are unable to connect to network resources. The technicians instruct the users to restart their computers. When the users log on to their computers, they are still unable to connect to network resources. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can connect to network resources. What should you instruct the users to do?
A. Roll back the network adapter driver.
B. Restore the last known good configuration.
C. Enable the network boot option in the BIOS.
D. Modify the properties on the Network Location Awareness service.

You have an Active Directory domain. All client computers run Windows 7 and are joined to the domain. All administrators have laptop computers that have integrated smart card readers. All administrator accounts are configured to require the smart cards to log on to the domain. A smart card reader fails on your laptop. You order a replacement smart card reader. The new reader will be delivered next week. You need to ensure that you can log on to the domain by using your administrative user account. You request that a domain administrator modify the properties of your user account. What else should you request the domain administrator to do?
A. Reset your computer account.
B. Reset your user account password.
C. Disable and enable your user account.
D. Remove your computer from the domain, and then join your computer to the domain.

Answer: B

Question: 42

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. Your company policy requires that all unnecessary services be disabled on the computers. The Sales department staff has been provided with new mobile broadband adapters that use the Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) technology. You need to ensure that portable computers can connect to the broadband GSM network. Which service should be enabled on the portable computers?
A. WLAN AutoConfig
B. WWAN AutoConfig
C. Computer Browser
D. Portable Device Enumerator Service

Answer: B
Question: 43
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. Employees using portable computers report that they get connected to a coffee shop wireless network from the company conference room. You need to ensure that the employees connect to the company wireless network by default from anywhere within the company premises. What should you do?
A. Configure the Network authentication (Shared mode) setting.
B. Apply a Wireless Network Policy to set the network type to WPA-PSK.
C. Apply a Wireless Network Policy to automatically connect to the company wireless network.
D. Apply a Wireless Network Policy to set the company wireless network as the preferred network.

Answer: D
Question: 44
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. All portable computers connect only to the 802.1X-authenticated wireless network. Wireless settings are set through the domain’s Group Policy. You discover that new portable computers cannot be joined to the domain. You need to ensure that new portable computers can be joined to the domain. What should you do?
A. Connect the portable computers to the wireless network by using a Bootstrap Profile.
B. Connect the portable computers to the wireless network by using a Non-Broadcast Profile.
C. Connect the portable computers to the domain by using smart card authentication.
D. Connect the portable computers to the domain by using network security key authentication.

Answer: A
Question: 45

Your network contains a wired network and a wireless network. Users report that they experience intermittent problems accessing network resources when they connect to the internal wireless network. You discover that an unsecured rogue wireless access point uses the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as the internal wireless network. You need to ensure that the users only connect to the internal wireless network. What should you do?
A. Configure a Windows Connect Now Group Policy.
B. Configure a Wireless Network (IEEE 802.11) Policy.
C. Delete the rogue network from the Network and Sharing Center on each computer.
D. Create a Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) profile and deploy it to all users.

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are located in the main office. A remote office connects to the main office by using a cellular network. Employees at the remote office frequently download a daily report from an IIS Web server at the main office, which causes them to incur excessive pay per bandwidth usage costs. You need to decrease the network bandwidth usage costs incurred by the remote office. What should you do?
A. Implement DirectAccess.
B. Implement VPN with compression.
C. Implement Distributed File System.
D. Configure Branch Cache.

Answer: D

Question: 47

Your company uses portable computers that run Windows 7. The Sales department staff use Wireless Wide Area Network (WWAN), WLAN, and wired network connections to work from a remote location. The Sales department staff reestablishes their secure connections and restart applications frequently. You need to ensure that the employees are able to work without unnecessary interruptions. What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy to configure preferred wireless access points
B. Configure Group Policy preferences to create multiple VPN connections
C. Configure each portable computer to use the VPN Reconnect feature
D. Configure each portable computer to use the Extensible Authentication Protocol

Answer: C

Question: 48
Your company has a main office and two branch office locations. All client computers on your
company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain.
All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are located in the main office. Branch office employees
use a slow WAN link with high latency to access files on a network share located in the main office.
You need to meet the following requirements:
·Reduce WAN link utilization
·Improve user response time when accessing files
What should you do?

A. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Mode.
B. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Mode.
C. Configure the Default Cache Size setting by using Group Policy.
D. Configure the Configure Slow link speed setting by using Group Policy.

All client computers on your company network run Windows XP and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain. You plan to migrate all computers to Windows 7. You also plan to deploy a new VPN server to support remote network access for the computers. You need to ensure that all computers will be supported for remote access during the migration to Windows. What should you do?
A. Set the VPN server to Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol.
B. Set the VPN server to Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol.
C. Set the VPN server to Internet Key Exchange version 2.
D. Configure the Direct Access feature on the VPN server.

Answer: A
Question: 50
All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. All servers in your company run Windows Server 2008 R2. Employees use a VPN connection to connect to the company network from a remote location. Software updates are not being applied to the client computers because employees log off before the updates are applied. You need to ensure that software updates are always applied to the client computers. What should you do?
A. Configure the Direct Access feature.
B. Configure the VPN Reconnect feature.
C. Use Group Policy to publish a package that contains the software updates.
D. Use Group Policy to redeploy a package that contains the software updates.

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. All servers in your company run Windows Server 2008 R2. Employees use a VPN connection to connect to the company network from a remote location. Employees remain connected to the VPN server to browse the Internet for personal use. You need to ensure that employees are unable to use the VPN connection for personal use. What should you do?
A. Configure the VPN connection to append a connection-specific DNS suffix.
B. Configure the VPN connection to use machine certificates for authentication.
C. Use Group Policy to disable the Use default gateway on remote network setting on each client computer.
D. Use Group Policy to configure the firewall on each computer to block outgoing connections when using the VPN connection.

Answer: C

Question: 52

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. Employees use Windows Internet Explorer 8 to access Web sites. You discover that some computers are infected with malicious software. Employees are able to access Web sites that might have been compromised by malicious software. You need to configure the settings in Internet Explorer 8 to prevent malicious software from being installed on the computers. What should you do?
A. Configure Popup Blocker.
B. Configure SmartScreen Filter.
C. Add the sites to the Local intranet zone.
D. Add company-approved Web sites to the Compatibility View List.

Answer: B

Question: 53

All client computers on your company network run Windows 7. The computers are members of a Windows Server 2008 Active Directory Domain Services domain. Malicious software is spreading automatically from removable drives. You need to ensure that malicious software does not automatically run on the computers. What should you do?
A. Disable the Windows Installer by using Domain Group Policy.
B. Disable the Autoplay function by using Domain Group Policy.
C. Disable the ActiveX installation policy by using Domain Group Policy.
D. Prevent the installation of unsigned drivers by using Domain Group Policy.

Answer: B
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070-489 dumps

QUESTION 38
You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system.
How can you determine the current Support Package level of all ABAP software components? (Choose
two)
A. Choose “System -> Status -> Component information”.
B. Use transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
C. Run the report “RSPFPAR”.
D. Launch the ICF path “/sap/bc/icf/info” in a Web browser.
E. Depending on the operating system, use the “disp+work -v” or “dw -v” command.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 39
During the startup of the central instance of an SAP system based on AS ABAP+Java 7.0x (dual stack),
different processes are started. Which processes are started by the ABAP Dispatcher by default? (Choose

three)
A. AS ABAP Message Server
B. AS ABAP Work Processes
C. AS Java Message Server
D. Internet Communication Manager (ICM) if parameter rdisp/start_icman is set to “true”
E. JControl
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 40
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the SAP integrated ITS?
A. In the SAP system, using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON (Internal ITS: Status)
C. On operating system level, using the command “icmon”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM (ICM Monitor)
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
How many clients can exist in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. 65,536
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
You have opened a CCMS monitor in transaction RZ20 (CCMS Monitor Sets).
What can you conclude by analyzing the attached screenshot?
A. Instances 00 and 01 of SAP system DEV on host twdf1921 are not running.
B. Instances 00 and 01 of SAP system DEV on host twdf1921 are running, but cannot be reached by
CCMS.
C. All nodes below the MTE “twdf1921_DEV_00” have the status “red”.
D. At least one node below the MTE “twdf1921_DEV_00” has the status “red”.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which of the following monitoring tools are designed to monitor AS Java-based SAP systems? (Choose
two)
A. Transaction ST02 (Tune Summary) in a central AS ABAP-based monitoring system
B. SAP NetWeaver Administrator (NWA)
C. Config tool
D. Transaction RZ20 (CCMS Monitor Sets) in a central AS ABAP-based monitoring system
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 44
Which ABAP software components are installed by default during the installation of an SAP ECC system?
(Choose three)
A. SAP_CRM
B. SAP_HR
C. SAP_BW
D. SAP_ERP
E. SAP_APPL
070-489 vce Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 45
For which of the following do you need to install and configure SAProuter? (Choose two)
A. EarlyWatch Service session done remotely by an SAP Support employee
B. Connection to https://scn.sap.com
C. Remote Consulting from SAP
D. Connection to https://service.sap.com
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 46
You are running an AS Java-based SAP system. You are maintaining local settings using the Visual
Administrator. These settings become effective immediately. You want to make sure that the new settings
are still valid after the next restart of your system. How do you fulfill this requirement?
A. No further steps are necessary in this scenario.
B. Mark check box “Activate in profile”.
C. Maintain the same settings in the global settings using the Visual Administrator.
D. Maintain the same settings in the Config Tool.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
You have developed repository objects for AS ABAP-based SAP systems. Your development work is being
logged within a transport request.
What happens when you release your task in the Transport Organizer (transaction SE09) of the
development system?
A. Repository locks are released for the respective repository objects.
B. The repository objects can no longer be changed.
C. Object entries are copied into the object list of the transport request for the respective repository objects.
D. The export process starts.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system with several instances.
Where are enqueue locks stored that are managed by the AS ABAP system?
A. In the shared memory of each instance
B. In the database of the SAP system
C. In the shared memory of the instance where the enqueue work process is running
D. In the shared memory of the ABAP message server
70-489 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
You are a transport administrator for an AS ABAP-based SAP system landscape. In the import queue of a
single SAP system, you select multiple transport requests to be imported together.
What happens when these transport requests are imported? (Choose two)
A. If an object is included in more than one transport request, only the version in the last transport request
is activated/generated (according to the sequence in the import queue).
B. If an object is included in more than one transport request, it is first stored in the shadow repository. You
can then activate/generate selected versions from the shadow repository later.
C. If an object is included in more than one transport request, you can specify which object version will be
activated/generated using unconditional (import) modes.
D. The objects in the first transport request are imported and activated/generated first, then the objects in
the second transport request, and so on.
E. All objects in all the selected transport requests are merged together.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 50
You are performing an SAP system upgrade of an AS ABAP-based development system.
When do you perform the modification adjustments for ABAP Dictionary objects using transaction SPDD
(Modification Adjustment Dictionary)?
A. In the upgrade preparation phases (Roadmap steps 1-4)
B. After the upgrade (EXIT)
C. During the upgrade before activation of table definitions (ACT_UPG)
D. During the upgrade after the first kernel switch (KX_SWITCH_1)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: C

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