Author: microdess

[June-2021] Get Pass4itsure (Microsoft 98-367) Exam Dumps As Practice Test And PDF

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Microsoft MTA Certifications:

98-349 :Windows Operating System Fundamentals

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Following are some Microsoft 98-367 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-367 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
You have a Windows 2012 R2 Server. Security logging is enabled. You use this log for several audits of the server.
You need to make sure the log is not overwritten when it reaches its maximum log size.
What should you do?
A. Copy logs regularly to a different location
B. Maintain a backup of the log file
C. Increase the log file size
D. Enable archiving
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
The company that you work for wants to set up a secure network, but they do not have any servers. Which three
security methods require the use of a server? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1x
B. WPA2 Personal
C. WPA2 Enterprise
D. RADIUS
E. 802.11ac
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 3
A group of users has access to Folder A and all of its contents. You need to prevent some of the users from accessing a
subfolder inside Folder A.
What should you do first?
A. Disable folder sharing
B. Hide the folder
C. Change the owner
D. Block inheritance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following points has to be considered for using the BitLocker?
A. The deployment of antivirus because BitLocker needs a a removal of buffer overflow.
B. The deployment of SEAL because BitLocker needs an alternative encryption algorithm to software- based DES,
3DES, and AES. .
C. The deployment of hardware because BitLocker needs a system reserved partition.
D. The deployment of hard disk because BitLocker needs a bot.
Correct Answer: C
Answer: B is incorrect. SEAL is an alternative encryption algorithm to software- based DES, 3DES, and AES. It uses a
160-bit encryption key. SEAL provides less impact to the CPU than other software- based encryption algorithms. In
Cisco IOS IPSec implementations, SEAL supports the SEAL algorithm. It can be configured through the command-line
interface using the crypto ipsec transform-set command and the esp-seal transform option. Answer: A is incorrect.
Buffer overflow is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept. It helps an
attacker not only to execute a malicious code on the target system but also to install backdoors on the target system for
further attacks. All buffer overflow attacks are due to only sloppy programming or poor memory management by the
application developers. The main types of buffer overflows are: Stack overflow Format string overflow Heap overflow
Integer overflow Answer: D is incorrect. A bot is defined as a program that is used to perform some task on a network
especially a task that is repetitive or time-consuming such as spybot or tracking software that uses other forms of
deceptive software and programs conducting some activities on a computer without getting appropriate consent from
the users.


QUESTION 5
You are preparing an audit policy for the workstations at Contoso, Ltd. Currently, no advanced auditing is enabled. The
workstations are not members of the domain. The settings of your Advanced Audit Policy Configuration are shown in the
following image:

98-367 exam questions-q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

98-367 exam questions-q5-2

 Correct Answer:

98-367 exam questions-q5-3

 

QUESTION 6
The purpose of User Account Control (UAC) is to:
A. Encrypt the user\\’s account
B. Limit the privileges of software
C. Secure your data from corruption
D. Facilitate Internet filtering
Correct Answer: B
User Account Control (UAC) is a technology and security infrastructure introduced with Microsoft\\’s Windows machines.
It aims to improve the security of Microsoft Windows by limiting application software to standard user privileges until an
administrator authorizes an increase or elevation. In this way, only applications trusted by the user may receive
administrative privileges, and malware should be kept from compromising the operating system.


QUESTION 7
Match the authentication protocol with its description.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate authentication protocol from the column on the left to its description on the
right. Each authentication protocol may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

98-367 exam questions-q7

 

QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. The first line of defense against
attacks from the Internet is a software firewall.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. hardware firewall
B. virus software
C. radius server
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You manage 50 Windows workstations in a computer lab. All workstations belong to the lab Active Directory domain.
You need to implement several audit policies on each workstation in the shortest time possible.
What should you do?
A. Enable logging on each computer
B. Create a domain Group Policy
C. Turn on the Audit Policy on the domain controller
D. Enable Audit object access
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/branchcache/deploy/use-group-policy-to-configure-domainmember-client-computers


QUESTION 10
Bridging is a process of sending packets from source to destination on OSI layer 3.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Routing
B. Switching
C. Repeating
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You want to prevent external users from acquiring information about your network. You should implement a:
A. router
B. layer-3 switch
C. firewall
D. proxy server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The certificate of a secure public Web server on the Internet should be:
A. Issued by a public certificate authority (CA)
B. Signed by using a 4096-bit key
C. Signed by using a 1024-bit key
D. Issued by an enterprise certificate authority (CA)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which of the following are required to enable for preventing the users from downloading and installing software from the
Internet? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Software restriction policies
B. PTR record
C. User Account Control
D. Anti-Virus software
Correct Answer: AC
Answer: C and A
It is required to enable User Account Control on all Windows 7 computers and to configure software restriction policies
to prevent the users from downloading and installing software from the Internet.

PS.

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[June-2021] Get Pass4itsure (Microsoft 98-365) Exam Dumps As Practice Test And PDF

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Microsoft MTA Certifications:
98-361 exam

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98-364

98-364 practice test https://www.microsoft-technet.com/get-pass4itsure-microsoft-98-364-exam-dumps-as-practice-test-and-pdf.html

Following are some Microsoft 98-365 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-365 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
Which is an advantage of 64-bit operating systems over 32-bit operating systems?
A. Larger amounts of accessible RAM
B. More device drivers
C. More compatible applications
D. Cheaper hardware
Correct Answer: A
Can access a larger address space.


QUESTION 2
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. While designing Windows Server 2016 for your organization, you
need to define a server role that allows a user to run more than one operating system simultaneously.
Which of the following server roles will you define?
A. Windows Deployment Services
B. Active Directory Rights Management Services
C. Active Directory Federation Services
D. Hyper-V
Correct Answer: D
In order to allow a user to run more than one operating system simultaneously, you should define the Hyper-V server
role. The Hyper-V server role is a server role of Windows Server 2016. This server role offers services for creating and
managing virtual machines and their resources. A virtual machine is a computer system that allows a user to run more
than one operating system simultaneously.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Windows Deployment Services server role allows installing and configuring Microsoft Windows operating
systems remotely on computers with PXE boot ROMs.
B: The Active Directory Rights Management Services server role enables applications to help safeguard digital
information from unauthorized use by specifying who can use the information and what they can do with it.
C: The Active Directory Federation Services server role offers Web SSO technologies for authenticating a user to
access multiple Web applications using a single user account.

QUESTION 3
Which technology provides both e-mail and database services?
A. Windows Server Enterprise Edition
B. Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Windows Server Essentials
D. Microsoft Project Server
Correct Answer: C
Windows Server Essentials (formerly Windows Small Business Server or SBS) is an integrated server suite from
Microsoft designed for running network infrastructure (both intranet management and Internet access) of small and
midsize businesses having no more than 25 users or 50 devices. Application server technologies are tightly integrated
to provide and offer management benefits such as integrated setup, enhanced monitoring, Remote Web Workplace, a
unified management console, and remote access.


QUESTION 4
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 domain-based
network. The network contains one Windows Server 2016 and twelve Windows 10 client computers.
You want to centralize management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings.
What will you do?
A. Apply NTFS permission.
B. Implement an account policy.
C. Apply an audit policy.
D. Implement a group policy.
Correct Answer: D
In order to centralize management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings in an Active
Directory environment, you should implement a group policy. A group policy that is created by an administrator affects
all
users on a computer or all users on a domain.
Group policies can be used for defining, customizing, and controlling the functioning of network resources, computers,
and operating systems. They can be set for a for users or computers in a domain. Administrators can configure group
policy settings for users as well as for computers in many ways. Group policies can be used to allow or restrict the
access of a particular program by a particular user. It can also be used to configure the desktop, the Start menu, the
taskbar,
the Control Panel, and security settings among other things.
Incorrect Answers:
A: NTFS permission allows an administrator to control which users and groups can access files and folders on an NTFS
volume.
B: An account policy controls the password expiration policy, the lockout policy, and other password features.
C: An audit policy determines whether security events are written to the security log in Event Viewer on the computer.

QUESTION 5
Where are domain user accounts managed in Windows Server?
A. Local Users and Groups console
B. Control Panel
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 based network
environment. There are thirty client computers running Windows 10 and three servers running Windows Server 2016.
You need to implement a system in the network that provides data access to heterogeneous network clients using
SMB/CIFS.
Which of the following will you use?
A. Storage area network
B. Failover clustering
C. Datafile striping
D. Network-attached storage
Correct Answer: D
You should use Network-attached storage (NAS).
Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data
access to heterogeneous network clients. NAS systems contain one or more hard disks, often arranged into logical,
redundant storage containers or RAID arrays.
It removes the responsibility of file serving from other servers on the network. NAS uses file-based protocols, such as
NFS, SMB/CIFS, or AFP.
NAS units rarely limit clients to a single protocol.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Storage Area Networks are a specialized RAID array that can be accessed by multiple servers over a specialized
network connection. A host bus adapter is required on servers that use the Storage Area Networks. The Storage Area
Networks administrator partitions the available storage into logical unit numbers and assigns them to the servers. The
disk volume shown in Disk manager is logical unit numbers. SAN use block-level protocols such as iSCSI or Fiber
Channel. They do not use SMB or CIFS.
B: Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2016 environment to provide high availability of
applications.
C: Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a
large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Hence, striping allows
quicker I/ Os by reading or writing through multiple read-write heads of the disks (which store the datafiles that have
been split) operating in parallel. This technique is of great help in parallel processing where throughput is of prime
concern.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following RAID level combinations makes RAID-10? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
(Choose two.)
A. RAID-1
B. RAID-0
C. RAID-2
D. RAID-3
Correct Answer: AB
RAID-10 is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0. It is implemented at hardware level rather than on the operating
system. It is used to connect mirrored disk pairs to form a RAID-0 array. Data is written on the striped set of disk array
as in RAID-0 and then it is mirrored as in RAID-1. Although expensive, RAID-10 provides better fault tolerance as well
as input/output performance.


QUESTION 8
By default, what port does SMTP use?
A. 80
B. 23
C. 25
D. 21
Correct Answer: C
SMTP uses TCP port 25.


QUESTION 9
What are three benefits of performing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2016? (Choose three.)
A. Option to upgrade to a Server with Desktop Experience
B. Reduced maintenance
C. Reduced attack vulnerability
D. Enhanced installation GUI
E. Lower disk space requirement
Correct Answer: BCE
Benefits of Server Core:
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-core/what-is-server-core


QUESTION 10
Which type of additional drivers does the Windows 10 installation phase prompt for?
A. Video
B. Network
C. Use
D. Storage
Correct Answer: D
You might be prompted for the mass storage device driver.
When installing Windows 10, you might see one of the following error messages:
References: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/windows-7-installation-problem-hard-drive-not-found

QUESTION 11
John works as a Consumer Support Technician for Web Tech Inc. The company provides troubleshooting support to
users.
A user named Peter is working with Windows 10. He reports that when he installs a new application on his computer,
Windows Task Manager displays that the CPU use is constantly at 100 percent. However, when he checks the desktop
and Task Manager, he finds that no program is currently open.
Which of the following tabs will John use to identify the program which uses most of the CPU time?
A. Performance tab
B. Services tab
C. Users tab
D. Processes tab
Correct Answer: D
In order to accomplish the task, John will use the Processes tab of Task Manager. The Processes tab shows a list of all
the tasks that are running on the system. It provides the Image Name, User Name, CPU time, Memory, and Description
of the processes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Performance tab of Task Manager displays only overall statistics such as CPU usage, PF usage, etc. It does not
provide information about any individual process. The following image displays the output of the Performance tab:
B: The Services tab lists the services running on the system. It does not identify the program which uses most of the
CPU time.
C: The Users tab lists the users who are currently logged in to the system. It does not identify the program which uses
most of the CPU time.


QUESTION 12
Which of the following tools will you use to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your system so that you
can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the occurrence of unexpected
changes in system behavior?
A. Server Manager
B. Task Manager
C. Windows Server Update Services
D. Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D
You should use Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your
system so that you can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the
occurrence of unexpected changes in system behavior. Reliability Monitor tracks the system\\’s reliability over time and
shows events that could potentially compromise that reliability.

QUESTION 13
The primary program to configure the Windows environment is: A. Computer Management Console
B. Control Panel
C. Server Manager
D. Registry Editor
Correct Answer: B
As with previous versions of Windows, the main graphical utility to configure the Windows environment and hardware
devices are the Control Panel.

PS.

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[June-2021] Get Pass4itsure (Microsoft 98-364) Exam Dumps As Practice Test And PDF

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Following are some Microsoft 98-364 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-364 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
You execute a statement inside a transaction to delete 100 rows from a table. The transaction fails after only 40 rows
are deleted. What is the result in the database?
A. The table will be corrupted.
B. Forty (40) rows will be deleted from the table.
C. The transaction will restart.
D. No rows will be deleted from the table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have a database table named SongInformation as defined below:

98-364 exam questions-q2

You need to create a Structured Query Language (SQL) query to retrieve only the names of songs that sold more than
1000 compact discs (CDs). Which query should you use?

98-364 exam questions-q2-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You need to list the name and price of each product, sorted by price from highest to lowest. Which statement should you
use?

98-364 exam questions-q3

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a table named Product that contains the following data.

98-364 exam questions-q4

The PrcducrID column is the primary key. The CategoryID column is a foreign key to a separate table named Category.
You execute the following statement:
INSERT INTO Product
VALUES (3296, \\’Table\\’, 4444)
What is the result?
A. a foreign key constraint violation
B. a syntax error
C. a new row in the Product table
D. a primary key constraint violation
E. a new row in the Category table
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
One reason to add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a database that contains 10 terabytes of data. You need to back up the database every two hours.
Which type of backup should you use?
A. archive
B. incremental
C. partial
D. full
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
You have a user that has server roles as defined below:

98-364 exam questions-q8

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

98-364 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer:

98-364 exam questions-q8-3

QUESTION 9
You have a table that contains product IDs and product names.
You need to write an UPDATE statement to change the name of a specific product to glass.
What should you include in the update statement?
A. SET ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
B. LET ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
C. EXEC ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
D. ASSIGN ProduetName = \\’glass\\’
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are developing a SQL query.
Which two SQL constructs represent data manipulation language (DML) statements? Choose two.
A. SELECT EmployeeName FROM Employee WHERE EmployeeName = \\’Jack Smith\\’;
B. INSERT INTO Employee VALUES (\\’Jack Smith\\’)
C. ALTER TABLE Employee ADD EmployeeName Varchar;
D. CREATE ROW IN Employee WHERE EmployeeName = \\’Jack Smith\\’;
Correct Answer: AB
Data manipulation languages have their functional capability organized by the initial word in a statement, which is
almost always a verb. In the case of SQL, these verbs are:
SELECT … FROM … WHERE … (strictly speaking DQL)
SELECT … INTO …
INSERT INTO … VALUES …
UPDATE … SET … WHERE …
DELETE FROM … WHERE …
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_manipulation_language

QUESTION 11
You work at a restaurant and they ask you to help them with a data issue. They provide you with the following recipe
data:

98-364 exam questions-q11

You need to normalize the data to third normal form. How many tables should you create?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What defines the amount of storage space that is allocated to a value in a column?
A. format
B. key
C. data type
D. validator
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
You have a table that contains information about all students in your school.
Which SQL keyword should you use to change a student\\’s first name in the table?
A. UPDATE
B. CHANGE
C. SELECT
D. INSERT
Correct Answer: A

PS.

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[June-2021] Get Pass4itsure (Microsoft 98-361) Exam Dumps As Practice Test And PDF

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Following are some Microsoft 98-361 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-361 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
How does a console-based application differ from a Windows Forms application?
A. Console-based applications require the XNA Framework to run.
B. Windows Forms applications do not provide a method for user input.
C. Windows Forms applications can access network resources.
D. Console-based applications do not display a graphical interface.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
You have a class named Truck that inherits from a base class named Vehicle. The Vehicle class includes a protected
method named brake (). How should you call the Truck Class implementation of the brake () method?
A. Mybase.brake ()
B. Truck.brakef)
C. Vehicle.brake()
D. Me.brake ()
Correct Answer: A
The MyBase keyword behaves like an object variable referring to the base class of the current instance of a
class.MyBase is commonly used to access base class members that are overridden or shadowed in a derived class.


QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The duplication of code so that modifications can happen in parallel is known as separating.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. branching
C. merging
D. splitting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are reviewing a design for a database. A portion of this design is shown in the exhibit. Note that you may choose to
view either the Crow\\’s Foot Notation or Chen Notation version of the design. (To view the Crow\\’s Foot Notation, click
the Exhibit A button. To view the Chen Notation, click the Exhibit B button.)98-361 exam questions-q4

Which term is used to describe the relationship between Customer and Order?
A. many-to-many
B. multi-dimensional
C. one-to-many
D. one-to-one
E. one-dimensional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The elements of an array must be accessed by:
A. Calling the item that was most recently inserted into the array.
B. Using a first-in, last-out (FILO) process.
C. Using an integer index.
D. Calling the last item in the memory array.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To minimize the amount of storage used on the hard drive by an application that generates many small files, you should
make the partition as small as possible.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. file allocation table
C. block size
D. folder and file names
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are creating an application that accepts input and displays a response to the user. You cannot create a graphical
interface for this application. Which type of application should you create?
A. Windows Forms
B. Windows Service
C. Web-based
D. Console-based
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The default entry point for a console application is the Class method.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Main
C. Program
D. Object
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.

98-361 exam questions-q9

 

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code.

98-361 exam questions-q10

What will the variable result be?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
What are two advantages of normalization in a database? (Choose two)
A. prevents data inconsistencies
B. reduces schema limitations
C. minimizes impact of data corruption
D. decreases space used on disk
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
In the application life cycle, the revision of an application after it has been deployed is referred to as:
A. Unit testing
B. Integration
C. Maintenance
D. Monitoring
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
How should you configure an application to consume a Web service?
A. Add the Web service to the development computer.
B. Add a reference to the Web service in the application.
C. Add a reference to the application in the Web service.
D. Add the Web service code to the application.
Correct Answer: B
Start by adding a Service Reference to the project. Right-click the ConsoleApplication1 project and choose “Add Service
Reference”:

PS.

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Following are some Microsoft 98-349 exam questions for review (Microsoft 98-349 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
Which two versions of Windows 7 support the Encrypting File System (EFS) functionality? (Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Professional Edition
B. Ultimate Edition
C. Home Premium Edition
D. Starter Edition
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 2
Your roommate complains that her computer is showing an error message that says ActivateWindowsSearch scheduled
task failed to run. To troubleshoot the error you go to Task Scheduler and view the properties of the
ActivateWindowsSearch task, as shown in the following image:

98-349 exam questions-q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.

98-349 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
Last time you turned on your computer, Windows started correctly. Now Windows starts but fails before the login
prompt. What is the first step you should try to troubleshoot this problem?
A. Restore a system image to the drive.
B. Restart the computer, press F8, and select Last Known Good Configuration.
C. Restart the computer, press F8, and select Safe Mode with Command Prompt.
D. Restart the computer, press F8, and select Start Windows Normally.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three tasks can you perform by using Microsoft Management Console (MMQ? (Choose three.)
A. Add new snap-ins to Windows administrative tools.
B. View a remote user\\’s desktop to troubleshoot and resolve problems.
C. Create Taskpads to provide a custom view of available options.
D. Create custom consoles containing assortments of administrative tools.
E. Run cmdlets to run various system operations.
F. Run a remote server application to perform a function.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
You have an internship at a company that wants you to help deploy Windows 7 to a dozen computers. The company
uses the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit instead of System Center Configuration Manager.
Which three migration methods are possible? (Choose three.)
A. LTI
B. HTTP
C. USB
D. UDI
E. ZTI
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Windows Aero is a:
A. Pointing device
B. Device driver
C. Desktop theme
D. Windows application
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Where should you view the list of services on your Windows 7 computer?
A. From the Windows Task Manager dialog box
B. From the Windows Registry
C. From the System Properties dialog box
D. From the Windows Action Center
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
The purpose of a Public folder is to:
A. share files with only one person on a network.
B. share files with everyone on a network.
C. share files with a selected group of people on a network.
D. back up files to a location on a network.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You need to install Windows 7 over an existing version of Windows.
Which type of installation should you use to retain all your files, settings, and programs on your computer?
A. Use the Windows Easy Transfer tool, and select Custom (advanced).
B. Use the Windows 7 installation disk to perform a system repair.
C. Use the Windows Easy Transfer tool, and select Upgrade.
D. Use the Windows 7 installation disk to perform a clean installation.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Windows hides some files by default to:
A. Avoid accidental modification or deletion of system files.
B. Protect the confidentiality of the contents of files.
C. Improve access to system files.
D. Save disk space.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your friend asks for your help with upgrading his computer to Windows 10. You plan to perform a clean install of
Windows 10 on his computer, which has Windows 8.1 installed. What should you tell your friend he will be able to find
on the computer\\’s hard drive after the installation is complete?
A. previous Windows8.1 installation
B. backup copy of all personal files
C. user profiles migrated to Windows 10
D. Windows 10 installation files
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.cnet.com/how-to/clean-install-windows-10/

QUESTION 12
You install a new monitor to your Windows 10 computer.
The following graphic shows the driver recommendations for the monitor.

98-349 exam questions-q12

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the
information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

98-349 exam questions-q12-2

Correct Answer:

98-349 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to configure a folder that allows everyone in your department to view and edit the files in the folder. You also
need to ensure that users outside the department cannot access the files.
What should you do?
A. Grant access to a single user by using the Share With menu.
B. Grant read access to specific people by using the Share With menu.
C. Place the files in one of the Windows public folders.
D. Grant read/write access to specific people by using the Share With menu.
Correct Answer: D

PS.

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Following are some Microsoft 62-193 exam questions for review (Microsoft 62-193 practice test 1-13)

QUESTION 1
You are a teacher at a secondary school. You have 30 students in your class. Your classroom contains 10 laptop
computers.
You plan a project for the students. You will provide the students with information in three different formats:
audio recordings, photographs, and printed documents. The students must combine the information to produce graphs
and charts in a detailed report.
What is the best way to organize the project?
A. Divide the project into a series of separate tasks. Allocate each task to a different student. Ask all of the students to
create their own detailed report.
B. Create a rotation schedule for the classroom computers. Ask every student touse their turn on the computer to
produce their own detailed report.
C. Provide all of the information to all of the students. Ask every student to explain how they will achieve the goals of the
project.
D. Divide the classinto 10 groups. Ask the groups to work collaborativelyto assemble the detailed report.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
In addition to learning about symmetry, how else should the students benefit from using ICT during the second
mathematics lesson? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study
button below.
A. ICT will teach them data entry skills.
B. ICT will teach them computer programming skills.
C. ICT will help them develop presentation skills.
D. ICT will help them develop collaboration skills.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
You have to recommend a solution to help the students solve their problem regarding the historical sources.
The problem must be solved as quickly as possible.
What should you recommend?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Modify the language settings on the students\\’ desktop or laptop computers.
B. Email the source text to a language teacher at the school.
C. Use an Internet-based translation tool.
D. Use a social networking site to connect with students in other countries and upload the text to the social networking
site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You want to track and manage student\\’s performance data.
Which type of application should you use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. desktop publishing
B. presentation
C. spreadsheet
D. word processing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You want to identify which tasks in the planned learning activity incorporate the use of the computer lab.
Which task should you identify?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. The students must hang the posters in the entrance hall of the school.
B. The students must assemble the images on a wall poster.
C. The students must select and edit digital images that illustrate the theme or the event.
D. The students must split into small groups and each group must identify a theme or a historical event.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are an environmental education teacher.
Your students are doing a collaborative project with students from another country using Information and
Communication Technology (ICT).
You create an activity that requires your students to use presentation software to display pictures and videos of local
birds. The students will then email the presentation to the foreign students.
You discover that the file size of the presentation exceeds the size limit set by your email provider.
You want to ensure that the students can send the presentation by email.
What should you advise the students to do?
A. In the presentation, reduce the font sizes and deactivate the custom animations.
B. Remove the pictures and the videos from the presentation.
C. Convert the presentation file to a bitmap image.
D. Compress the video files and the pictures before inserting them into the presentation.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the
examples to the entire class.
Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
You want to address the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policy goals by using the school\\’s
limited ICT resources.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Ask the students to use their computers at home.
B. Have the students work in collaborative groups.
C. Ask the students to use their mobile devices.
D. Have the more confident students use the computers while the other students observe them.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
The school plans to deploy six of the planned laptops in each classroom.
You were asked to recommend a solution that enables each student to use the laptops as part of a group project.
What should you recommend?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Make your classroom available to students at lunchtime and after school.
B. Have all the groupsfirst plan their project, and then book timeslots for computer use.
C. Assign one computer to each group.
D. Let students from any group use any of the computers as needed.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You want to motivatethe school to invest in ICT resources. The reason must be based on the ICT Competency
Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT).
Which argument should you use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. to become the best equipped school in your region.
B. to improve local economic conditions.
C. to give the students in your school access to a range of resources and learning experiences.
D. to meet the expectations of the students and the parents.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Certain teachers at the school question the value of using video conferencing for the project.
What is the most important benefit of video conferencing as it is being used in this project?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Video conferencing provides an opportunity to use a new technology.
B. Video conferencing provides an opportunity for group collaboration.
C. Video conferencing provides an authentic conversation about the problem.
D. Video conferencing provides a reliable way to gather scientific information.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You are preparing to teach the second mathematics lesson.
Which two tasksshould you perform to ensure that the students benefit most from working in the computer lab? (Each
correctanswer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Verify that the Internet connection is only available on the teacher\\’s computer.
B. Verify that the printer has enough paper.
C. Ensure that the data projector works.
D. Verify that the computers have the appropriate software installed.
E. Ensure that the USB drives have free space available.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
You have to meet the professional development objectives by using the ICT resources.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Use a laptop to take notes during professional seminars at a local university or college.
B. Join online educator networks to exchange ideas.
C. Create a blog and ask the students to comment on your lessons and your blog posts.
D. Download ready-made materials to use during your lessons.
Correct Answer: D

PS.

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine named SQL1.
SQL1 has an agent job to back up all databases.
You add a user named dbadmin1 as a SQL Server Agent operator.
You need to ensure that dbadmin1 receives an email alert if a job fails.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

dp-300 exam questions-q1

 Correct Answer:

dp-300 exam questions-q1-2

Step 1: Enable the email settings for the SQL Server Agent.
To send a notification in response to an alert, you must first configure SQL Server Agent to send mail.
Step 2: Create a job alert
Step 3: Create a job notification
Example:
— adds an e-mail notification for the specified alert (Test Alert)
— This example assumes that Test Alert already exists
— and that François Ajenstat is a valid operator name.
USE msdb ;
GO
EXEC dbo.sp_add_notification
@alert_name = N\\’Test Alert\\’,
@operator_name = N\\’François Ajenstat\\’,
@notification_method = 1 ;
GO
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/ssms/agent/notify-an-operator-of-job-status
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/ssms/agent/assign-alerts-to-an-operator

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure SQL database named sqldb1.
You need to minimize the amount of space by the data and log files of sqldb1.
What should you run?
A. DBCC SHRINKDATABASE
B. sp_clean_db_free_space
C. sp_clean_db_file_free_space
D. DBCC SHRINKFILE
Correct Answer: A
DBCC SHRINKDATABASE shrinks the size of the data and log files in the specified database. Incorrect Answers:
D: To shrink one data or log file at a time for a specific database, execute the DBCC SHRINKFILE command.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/database-console-commands/dbcc-shrinkdatabase-transact-sql


QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine that contains a database named Db1.
You need to enable automatic tuning for Db1.
How should you complete the statements? To answer, select the appropriate answer in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-300 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

dp-300 exam questions-q3-2

Box 1: SET AUTOMATIC_TUNING = AUTO
To enable automatic tuning on a single database via T-SQL, connect to the database and execute the following query:
ALTER DATABASE current SET AUTOMATIC_TUNING = AUTO
Setting automatic tuning to AUTO will apply Azure Defaults.
Box 2: SET AUTOMATIC_TUNING (FORCE_LAST_GOOD_PLAN = ON)
To configure individual automatic tuning options via T-SQL, connect to the database and execute the query such as this
one:
ALTER DATABASE current SET AUTOMATIC_TUNING (FORCE_LAST_GOOD_PLAN = ON)
Setting the individual tuning option to ON will override any setting that database inherited and enable the tuning option.
Setting it to OFF will also override any setting that database inherited and disable the tuning option.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/automatic-tuning-enable

QUESTION 4
You have two Azure SQL Database servers named Server1 and Server2. Each server contains an Azure SQL database
named Database1.
You need to restore Database1 from Server1 to Server2. The solution must replace the existing Database1 on Server2.
Solution: From the Azure portal, you delete Database1 from Server2, and then you create a new database on Server2
by using the backup of Database1 from Server1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead restore Database1 from Server1 to the Server2 by using the RESTORE Transact-SQL command and the
REPLACE option.
Note: REPLACE should be used rarely and only after careful consideration. Restore normally prevents accidentally
overwriting a database with a different database. If the database specified in a RESTORE statement already exists on
the current server and the specified database family GUID differs from the database family GUID recorded in the
backup set, the database is not restored. This is an important safeguard.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/restore-statements-transact-sql


QUESTION 5
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine that contains a database named DB1.
You have an application that queries DB1 to generate a sales report.
You need to see the parameter values from the last time the query was executed.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Enable Last_Query_Plan_Stats in the master database
B. Enable Lightweight_Query_Profiling in DB1
C. Enable Last_Query_Plan_Stats in DB1
D. Enable Lightweight_Query_Profiling in the master database
E. Enable PARAMETER_SNIFFING in DB1
Correct Answer: AC
Last_Query_Plan_Stats allows you to enable or disable collection of the last query plan statistics (equivalent to an
actual execution plan) in sys.dm_exec_query_plan_stats.
Lightweight profiling can be disabled at the database level using the LIGHTWEIGHT_QUERY_PROFILING database
scoped configuration: ALTER DATABASE SCOPED CONFIGURATION SET LIGHTWEIGHT_QUERY_PROFILING =OFF;.
Incorrect Answers:
E: Parameter sensitivity, also known as “parameter sniffing”, refers to a process whereby SQL Server “sniffs” the
current parameter values during compilation or recompilation, and passes it along to the Query Optimizer so that they
can be used to generate potentially more efficient query execution plans.
Parameter values are sniffed during compilation or recompilation for the following types of batches: Stored procedures
Queries submitted via sp_executesql Prepared queries
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/query-profiling-infrastructure

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You have a resource group named App1Dev that contains an Azure SQL Database server named DevServer1.
DevServer1 contains an Azure SQL database named DB1. The schema and permissions for DB1 are saved in a
Microsoft SQL
Server Data Tools (SSDT) database project.
You need to populate a new resource group named App1Test with the DB1 database and an Azure SQL Server named
TestServer1. The resources in App1Test must have the same configurations as the resources in App1Dev.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

dp-300 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

dp-300 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure SQL Database managed instance named sqldbmi1 that contains a database name Sales.
You need to initiate a backup of Sales.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-300 exam questions-q7

Box 1: TO URL = \\’https://storage1.blob.core.windows.net/blob1/Sales.bak\\’
Native database backup in Azure SQL Managed Instance.
You can backup any database using standard BACKUP T-SQL command:
BACKUP DATABASE tpcc2501
TO URL = \\’https://myacc.blob.core.windows.net/testcontainer/tpcc2501.bak\\’
WITH COPY_ONLY
Box 2: WITH COPY_ONLY
Reference:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/azure-sql-database/native-database-backup-in-azure-sql-managed-instance/bap/386154

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You need to configure user authentication for the SERVER1 databases. The solution must meet the security and
compliance requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

dp-300 exam questions-q8

dp-300 exam questions-q8-2

Scenario: Authenticate database users by using Active Directory credentials.
The configuration steps include the following procedures to configure and use Azure Active Directory authentication.
Create and populate Azure AD.
Optional: Associate or change the active directory that is currently associated with your Azure Subscription.
Create an Azure Active Directory administrator. (Step 1)
Configure your client computers.
Create contained database users in your database mapped to Azure AD identities. (Step 2) Connect to your database
by using Azure AD identities. (Step 3)
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/authentication-aad-overview


QUESTION 9
You receive numerous alerts from Azure Monitor for an Azure SQL database.
You need to reduce the number of alerts. You must only receive alerts if there is a significant change in usage patterns
for an extended period.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set Threshold Sensitivity to High
B. Set the Alert logic threshold to Dynamic
C. Set the Alert logic threshold to Static
D. Set Threshold Sensitivity to Low
E. Set Force Plan to On
Correct Answer: BD
B: Dynamic Thresholds continuously learns the data of the metric series and tries to model it using a set of algorithms
and methods. It detects patterns in the data such as seasonality (Hourly / Daily / Weekly), and is able to handle noisy
metrics (such as machine CPU or memory) as well as metrics with low dispersion (such as availability and error rate).
D: Alert threshold sensitivity is a high-level concept that controls the amount of deviation from metric behavior required
to trigger an alert.


QUESTION 10
You are building a database backup solution for a SQL Server database hosted on an Azure virtual machine.
In the event of an Azure regional outage, you need to be able to restore the database backups. The solution must
minimize costs.
Which type of storage accounts should you use for the backups?
A. locally-redundant storage (LRS)
B. read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS)
C. zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
D. geo-redundant storage
Correct Answer: B
Geo-redundant storage (with GRS or GZRS) replicates your data to another physical location in the secondary region to
protect against regional outages. However, that data is available to be read only if the customer or Microsoft initiates a
failover from the primary to secondary region. When you enable read access to the secondary region, your data is
available to be read if the primary region becomes unavailable. For read access to the secondary region, enable readaccess geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS) or read-access geo-zone-redundant storage (RA-GZRS).
Incorrect Answers:
A: Locally redundant storage (LRS) copies your data synchronously three times within a single physical location in the
primary region. LRS is the least expensive replication option, but is not recommended for applications requiring high
availability.
C: Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) copies your data synchronously across three Azure availability zones in the primary
region.
D: Geo-redundant storage (with GRS or GZRS) replicates your data to another physical location in the secondary region
to protect against regional outages. However, that data is available to be read only if the customer or Microsoft initiates
a failover from the primary to secondary region.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure SQL database named db1.
You need to retrieve the resource usage of db1 from the last week.
How should you complete the statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-300 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

dp-300 exam questions-q11-2

Box 1: sys.resource_stats
sys.resource_stats returns CPU usage and storage data for an Azure SQL Database. It has database_name and
start_time columns.
Box 2: DateAdd
The following example returns all databases that are averaging at least 80% of compute utilization over the last one
week.
DECLARE @s datetime;
DECLARE @e datetime;
SET @s= DateAdd(d,-7,GetUTCDate());
SET @e= GETUTCDATE();
SELECT database_name, AVG(avg_cpu_percent) AS Average_Compute_Utilization FROM sys.resource_stats
WHERE start_time BETWEEN @s AND @e GROUP BY database_name HAVING AVG(avg_cpu_percent) >= 80
Incorrect Answers: sys.dm_exec_requests: sys.dm_exec_requests returns information about each request that is
executing in SQL Server. It does not have a column named database_name.
sys.dm_db_resource_stats:
sys.dm_db_resource_stats does not have any start_time column.
Note: sys.dm_db_resource_stats returns CPU, I/O, and memory consumption for an Azure SQL Database database. One row exists for every 15 seconds, even if there is no activity in the database. Historical data is maintained for
approximately one hour.
Sys.dm_user_db_resource_governance returns actual configuration and capacity settings used by resource governance
mechanisms in the current database or elastic pool. It does not have any start_time column.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-catalog-views/sys-resource-stats-azure-sql-database 

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure virtual machine based on a custom image named VM1.
VM1 hosts an instance of Microsoft SQL Server 2019 Standard.
You need to automate the maintenance of VM1 to meet the following requirements:
Automate the patching of SQL Server and Windows Server.
Automate full database backups and transaction log backups of the databases on VM1.
Minimize administrative effort.
What should you do first?
A. Enable a system-assigned managed identity for VM1
B. Register VM1 to the Microsoft.Sql resource provider
C. Install an Azure virtual machine Desired State Configuration (DSC) extension on VM1
D. Register VM1 to the Microsoft.SqlVirtualMachine resource provider
Correct Answer: B
Automated Patching depends on the SQL Server infrastructure as a service (IaaS) Agent Extension. The SQL Server
IaaS Agent Extension (SqlIaasExtension) runs on Azure virtual machines to automate administration tasks. The SQL
Server IaaS extension is installed when you register your SQL Server VM with the SQL Server VM resource provider.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/virtual-machines/windows/sql-server-iaas-agent-extensionautomate-management

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure SQL database named sqldb1.
You need to minimize the possibility of Query Store transitioning to a read-only state.
What should you do?
A. Double the value of Data Flush interval
B. Decrease by half the value of Data Flush Interval
C. Double the value of Statistics Collection Interval
D. Decrease by half the value of Statistics Collection interval
Correct Answer: B
The Max Size (MB) limit isn\\’t strictly enforced. Storage size is checked only when Query Store writes data to disk. This
interval is set by the Data Flush Interval (Minutes) option. If Query Store has breached the maximum size limit between
storage size checks, it transitions to read-only mode.
Incorrect Answers: C: Statistics Collection Interval: Defines the level of granularity for the collected runtime statistic,
expressed in minutes. The default is 60 minutes. Consider using a lower value if you require finer granularity or less
time to detect and mitigate issues. Keep in mind that the value directly affects the size of Query Store data.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/best-practice-with-the-query-store

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Microsoft MCSA 70-743 practice test free

QUESTION 1
You have multiple servers that run Windows Server 2016 and are configured as VPN servers.
You deploy a server named NPS1 that has Network Policy Server (NPS) installed.
You need to configure NPS1 to accept authentication requests from the VPN servers.
What should you configure on NPS1?
A. From RADIUS Clients and Servers, add a remote RADIUS server group.
B. From Policies, add a connection request policy.
C. From Policies, add a network policy.
D. From RADIUS Clients and Servers, add RADIUS clients.
Correct Answer: D
You can use this topic to configure network access servers as RADIUS Clients in NPS.
When you add a new network access server (VPN server, wireless access point, authenticating switch, or dialup server)
to your network, you must add the server as a RADIUS client in NPS, and then configure the RADIUS client to
communicate with the NPS server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nps/nps-radius-clients-configure


QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named
Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and
have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.

70-743 exam questions-q2

On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the
\Global access scope to the user. Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

70-743 exam questions-q2-2

User1 is using Server Manager, not IPAM to perform the administration. Therefore, only the “DHCP Administrators”
permission on Server2 and the “DHCP Users” permissions on Server3 are applied. The permissions granted through
membership of the “IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role” are not applied when the user is not using the IPAM
console.


QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration:

70-743 exam questions-q3

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device
registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
For a Windows Server 2012 R2 AD FS server, this solution would work. However, new installations of AD FS 2016
require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85).
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/identity/ad-fs/operations/configure-device-basedconditional-access-on-premises https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows-server/identity/ad-fs/overview/ad-fsrequirements

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016.
As a domain administrator, you log on to a server named Server2 and open Windows PowerShell.
You need to establish an interactive PowerShell session to a server named Server1.
Which command should you run?
A. Set-PSSessionConfiguration -AccessMode Remote -Name Server1
B. Enable-PSRemoting Server1
C. New-PSSession -Name Server1
D. Enter-PSSession -ComputerName Server1
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
You have a DirectAccess Server that is accessible by using the name directaccess.fabrikam.com On the DirectAccess
server, you install a new server certificate that has a subject name of directaccess.contoso.com, and then you configure
DNS records for directaccess.contoso.com You need to change the endpoint name for DirectAccess to
directaccess.contoso.com What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
Hot Area:

70-743 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to deploy Internet Information Services (US) in a Windows container.
You need to prepare Server1 for the planned deployment.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-743 exam questions-q6

 Correct Answer:

70-743 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
On a new server, you install Windows Server 2016, and then you install the Hyper-V server role.
You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows containers that use an image of the Server Core installation of
Windows Server.
Which four commands should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate commands to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-743 exam questions-q7

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/quick-start/quick-start-windows-server

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V role on Server1. Server1
has eight network adapters that are dedicated to virtual machines.
The network adapters are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)-enabled.
You plan to use Software Defined Networking (SDN). You will host the virtual machines for multiple tenants on the
Hyper-V host.
You need to ensure that the network connections for the virtual machines are resilient if one or more physical network
adapters fail.
What should you implement?
A. NIC teaming on the Hyper-V host
B. virtual Receive-side Scaling (vRSS)
C. Switch Embedded Teaming (SET)
D. single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host. You run the commands
shown in the following graphic:

70-743 exam questions-q9

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

70-743 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the File and Storage Services server role
installed.
Server1 has an ReFS-formatted volume named Volume1 that is 512 GB. Volume1 is mounted as C:\App1\temp.
You need to ensure that you can enable deduplication of Volume1.
What should you do?
A. Initialize the physical disk that contains Volume1.
B. Unmount Volume1.
C. Format Volume1.
D. Install a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/data-deduplication/install-enable#enable-deduplights-on


QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain-based
Distributed File System (DFS) namespace named Namespace1.
You need to view the shares to which users will be redirected when the users attempt to connect to a folder named
Folder1 in the DFS namespace.
What cmdlet should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-743 exam questions-q11

 Correct Answer:

70-743 exam questions-q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/dfsn/get-dfsnfolder?view=win10-ps


QUESTION 12
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) deployment that is used to manage all of the DNS servers on your
network. IPAM is configured to use Group Policy provisioning.
You discover that a user adds a new mail exchanger (MX) record to one of the DNS zones.
You want to identify which user added the record.
You open Event Catalog on an IPAM server, and you discover that the most recent event occurred yesterday.
You need to ensure that the operational events in the event catalog are never older than one hour.
What should you do?
A. From an IPAM_DNS Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Group Policy refresh interval.
B. From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs the Update-IpamServer cmdlet.
C. From the properties on the DNS zone, modify the refresh interval.
D. From Task Scheduler, modify the Microsoft\Windows\IPAM\Audit task.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others
might not have a correct solution.
After your answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController -Discover -Service 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

70-743 exam questions-q13

References:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/
http://www.markou.me/2016/10/get-list-fsmo-role-holders-using-powershell-one-liners/
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/powershell/windows/addsadministration/getaddomaincontroller?f=255andMSPPError=-2147217396

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Free CheckPoint 156-115.80 Practice Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
In order to review the IPS statistics to determine if adjustments can be made to improve performance, which command
would you use to get the appropriate information?
A. fw monitor –e “accept IPS_stats;” >> ips_statistics.xml
B. fw ctl debug –m ips debug_compilation
C. fw ctl set int enable_ips_debug_output 1
D. $FWDIR/scripts/get_ips_statistics.sh 10.1.1.1 60
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the correct command to turn off an IKE debug?
A. vpn debug ikeoff
B. fw ctl debug ikeoff
C. vpn debug ikeoff 0
D. fw ctl vpn debug ikeoff
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 3
Which of the following ports are used for SIC?
A. 18355 and 18356
B. 18210 and 18211
C. 257 and 258
D. 18192 and 18193
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here

QUESTION 4
When troubleshooting acceleration issues on a Security Gateway, you notice that the fw_worker_x process is
consuming about 100% processing power. What can be done to stop this from happening?
A. Assign more CPU cores to the system
B. Use fwaccel stop/start release process
C. Edit the registry file to increase virtual memory
D. Remove the memory file in /proc/ and recreate it
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which kernel table stores information about NAT connections?
A. connections
B. tab_nat_conn
C. xlate
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
What does the command “vpn shell tunnels delete all ike” do?
A. Delete only outbound_SPI tables
B. Deletes all IKE and IPSEC SA\\’s
C. Deletes all IKE configuration on the Gateway
D. Deletes all IKE SA\\’s
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is NOT a special consideration while running fw monitor on production firewall?
A. While executing fw monitor, you need to specify an expression so that it captures the required traffic instead of all traffic
B. While running fw monitor on a busy firewall, the –ci and –co switches can be used to limit the number of packets
captured
C. While running fw monitor, it resets all the debug flags
D. During a fw monitor, the firewall will have to process more packets because SecureXL acceleration should be
disabled
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
John works for ABC Corporation. They have enabled CoreXL on their firewall. John would like to identify the cores on
which the SND runs and the cores on which the firewall instance is running. Which command should John run to view
the CPU role allocation?
A. fw ctl affinity –v
B. fwaccel stat –l
C. fwaccel stat –l
D. fw ctl cores
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the default and maximum number of entries in the ARP Cache Table in a Check Point appliance?
A. 1,024 and 4,096
B. 4,096 and 16,384
C. 4,096 and 65,536
D. 1,024 and 16,384
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 10
Which of the following is correct in a Threat Prevention policy?
A. Threat Prevention inspects traffic to all objects specified in the Protected Scope
B. Threat Prevention inspects traffic to and/or from all objects specified in the Protected Scope
C. Threat Prevention is applied based on the profile. Protection Scope does not have any relevance
D. Threat Prevention inspects traffic from all objects specified in the protected Scope
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 11
A Firewall administrator is attempting to push a policy to a new Security Gateway for a remote office but the installation
fails. The Management Server IP is 10.1.1.101. Initial troubleshooting shows that policy is successfully transferred to the
Gateway. What command would you use to attempt to identify the cause of the issue?
A. fw ctl debug –T –f > /var/log/p_debug.txt
B. cp_merge export_policy –s 10.1.1.101 –n Standard $var/log/
C. fw ctl debug –m 10.1.1.101
D. fw fetchlocal –d $FWDIR/state/_tmp/FW1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When enabling hyper-threading on a Security Gateway, the administrator needs to make sure there is enough
_______________ to support additional CoreXL Firewall instances.
A. drive space
B. cpu\\’s
C. available cache
D. available memory
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 13
Fill in the blank. The tool ____________________ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.
A. infoCP
B. infoview
C. cpinfo
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You are configuring the settings of a new Git repository in Azure Repos.
You need to ensure that pull requests in a branch meet the following criteria before they are merged:
1.
Committed code must compile successfully.
2.
Pull requests must have a Quality Gate status of Passed in SonarCloud.
Which policy type should you configure for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate policy types to the
correct requirements. Each policy type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split
bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q1

Box 1: A check-in policy
Administrators of Team Foundation version control can add check-in policy requirements. These check-in policies
require the user to take actions when they conduct a check-in to source control.
By default, the following check-in policy types are available:
1.
Builds Requires that the last build was successful before a check-in.
2.
Code Analysis Requires that code analysis is run before check-in.
3.
Work Items Requires that one or more work items be associated with the check-in.
Box 2: Build policy
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/tfvc/add-check-policies
https://azuredevopslabs.com/labs/vstsextend/sonarcloud/

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You need to deploy Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) to host an application. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
1.
Containers must only be published internally.
2.
AKS clusters must be able to create and manage containers in Azure.
What should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q2

Box 1: Azure Container Registry Azure services like Azure Container Registry (ACR) and Azure Container Instances
(ACI) can be used and connected from independent container orchestrators like kubernetes (k8s). You can set up a
custom ACR and connect it to an existing k8s cluster to ensure images will be pulled from the private container registry
instead of the public docker hub.
Box 2: An Azure service principal When you\\’re using Azure Container Registry (ACR) with Azure Kubernetes Service
(AKS), an authentication mechanism needs to be established. You can set up AKS and ACR integration during the initial
creation of your AKS cluster. To allow an AKS cluster to interact with ACR, an Azure Active Directory service principal is
used.
References: https://thorsten-hans.com/how-to-use-private-azure-container-registry-with-kubernetes
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/cluster-container-registry-integration

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains resources in several resource groups. You need to design a monitoring
strategy that will provide a consolidated view. The solution must support the following requirements:
1.
Support role-based access control (RBAQ by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) identities.
2.
Include visuals from Azure Monitor that are generated by using the Kusto query language.
3.
Support documentation written in markdown.
4.
Use the latest data available for each visual. What should you use to create the consolidated view?
A. Azure Data Explorer
B. Azure dashboards
C. Azure Monitor
D. Microsoft Power Bl
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Azure DevOps project,
The source code for the project is stored in an on-premises repository and uses on an on-premises build server.
You plan to use Azure DevOps to control the build process on the build server by using a self-hosted agent.
You need to implement the self-hosted agent.
You download and install the agent on the build server.
Which two actions should you perform next? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From Azure, create a shared access signature (SAS).
B. From the build server, create a certificate, and then upload the certificate to Azure Storage.
C. From the build server, create a certificate, and then upload the certificate to Azure Key Vault.
D. From DevOps, create a personal access token (PAT).
E. From the build server, run config.cmd.
Correct Answer: BE
B: Make sure you install your self-signed ssl server certificate into the OS certificate store.
E: When you have a self-signed SSL certificate for your on-premises TFS server, make sure to configure the Git we shipped to allow that self-signed SSL certificate.
Enable git to use SChannel during configure with 2.129.0 or higher version agent Pass –gituseschannel during agent
configuration./config.cmd –gituseschannel Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/agents/certificate

QUESTION 5
During a code review, you discover many quality issues. Many modules contain unused variables and empty catch
blocks.
You need to recommend a solution to improve the quality of the code.
What should you recommend?
A. In a Grunt build task, select Enabled from Control Options.
B. In a Maven build task, select Run PMD.
C. In a Xcode build task, select Use xcpretty from Advanced.
D. In a Gradle build task, select Run Checkstyle.
Correct Answer: B
PMD is a source code analyzer. It finds common programming flaws like unused variables, empty catch blocks,
unnecessary object creation, and so forth.
There is an Apache Maven PMD Plugin which allows you to automatically run the PMD code analysis tool on your
project\\’s source code and generate a site report with its results.
Incorrect Answers:
C: xcpretty is a fast and flexible formatter for xcodebuild. References: https://pmd.github.io/


QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP You are configuring an Azure DevOps deployment pipeline. The deployed application will authenticate to
a web service by using a secret stored in an Azure key vault. You need to use the secret in the deployment pipeline.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q6

QUESTION 7
You have a multi-tier application that has an Azure Web Apps front end and an Azure SQL Database back end.
You need to recommend a solution to capture and store telemetry data. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
1.
Support using ad-hoc queries to identify baselines.
2.
Trigger alerts when metrics in the baseline are exceeded.
3.
Store application and database metrics in a central location. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Event Hubs
B. Azure SQL Database Intelligent Insights
C. Azure Application Insights
D. Azure Log Analytics
Correct Answer: D
Azure Platform as a Service (PaaS) resources, like Azure SQL and Web Sites (Web Apps), can emit performance
metrics data natively to Log Analytics.
The Premium plan will retain up to 12 months of data, giving you an excellent baseline ability.
There are two options available in the Azure portal for analyzing data stored in Log analytics and for creating queries for
ad hoc analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Intelligent Insights analyzes database performance by comparing the database workload from the last hour with the
past seven-day baseline workload. However, we need to handle application metrics as well. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/collect-azurepass-posh

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your company has a project in Azure DevOps.
You plan to create a release pipeline that will deploy resources by using Azure Resource Manager templates. The
templates will reference secrets stored in Azure Key Vault.
You need to recommend a solution for accessing the secrets stored in the key vault during deployments. The solution
must use the principle of least privilege.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct targets.
Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q8

Management plane access control uses RBAC.
The management plane consists of operations that affect the key vault itself, such as:
Creating or deleting a key vault.
Getting a list of vaults in a subscription.
Retrieving Key Vault properties (such as SKU and tags).
Setting Key Vault access policies that control user and application access to keys and secrets.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-tutorial-use-key-vault

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso, an Azure DevOps project named Project1, an Azure
subscription named Sub1, and an Azure key vault named vault1.
You need to ensure that you can reference the values of the secrets stored in vault1 in all the pipelines of Project1. The
solution must prevent the values from being stored in the pipelines.
What should you do?
A. Create a variable group in Project1.
B. Add a secure file to Project1.
C. Modify the security settings of the pipelines.
D. Configure the security policy of Contoso.
Correct Answer: A
Use a variable group to store values that you want to control and make available across multiple pipelines.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/library/variable-groups

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a project in Azure DevOps for a new web application.
You need to ensure that when code is checked in, a build runs automatically.
Solution: From the Pre-deployment conditions settings of the release pipeline, you select Batch changes while a build is
in progress.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, In Visual Designer, you enable continuous integration (CI) by:
1.
Select the Triggers tab.
2.
Enable Continuous integration.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/get-started-designer

QUESTION 11
You have a private GitHub repository.
You need to display the commit status of the repository on Azure Boards.
What should you do first?
A. Create a GitHub action in GitHub.
B. Add the Azure Pipelines app to the GitHub repository.
C. Configure multi-factor authentication (MFA) for your GitHub account.
D. Add the Azure Boards app to the repository.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You administer an Azure DevOps project that includes package feeds.
You need to ensure that developers can unlist and deprecate packages. The solution must use the principle of least
privilege.
Which access level should you grant to the developers?
A. Collaborator
B. Contributor
C. Owner
Correct Answer: B
Feeds have four levels of access: Owners, Contributors, Collaborators, and Readers. Owners can add any type of
identity-individuals, teams, and groups-to any access level.

Microsoft-technet AZ 400 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/artifacts/feeds/feed-permissions

QUESTION 13
Your company uses the following resources:
1.
Windows Server 2019 container images hosted in an Azure Container Registry
2.
Azure virtual machines that run the latest version of Ubuntu An Azure
3.
Log Analytics workspace Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
4.
An Azure key vault
For which two resources can you receive vulnerability assessments in Azure Security Center?
Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. the Azure Log Analytics workspace
B. the Azure key vault
C. the Azure virtual machines that run the latest version of Ubuntu
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
E. the Windows Server 2019 container images hosted in the Azure Container Registry
Correct Answer: CE

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