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QUESTION 1
What is a valid CLARiiON World Wide Node Name?
A. 50:06:01:63:39:a0:0d:84
B. 50:06:01:60:b9:a0:0d:84
C. 50:06:01:6b:39:a0:0d:84
D. 21:00:00:e0:8b:86:88:db
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
In CLARiiON environments, to perform management from a host that has an agent installed, the storage must be added as a Privileged User in a specific file. Which file is this?
A. agent.cfg
B. agent.config
C. naviagent.cfg
D. naviagent.config

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button. What is the name of the pictured connector used for Ethernet connections? **Exhibit Missing**
A. RJ-8
B. RJ-11
C. RJ-45
D. RJ-48

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which architecture allows for initiators to exist in an Ethernet environment while the target storage exists in a Fibre Channel environment?
A. Bridging
B. Routing
C. Switching
D. Tunneling

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
A company has decided to use all of SAN Advisors features. What will this company also need?
A. An Internet connection, Oracle 8, and Excel 2002
B. An Internet connection, Visio 2002, and Excel 2002.
C. Microsoft SQL 2000 and Excel 2002
D. Oracle 8 and Excel 2002

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button. Which type of connector is the pictured component known as? **Exhibit Missing** A. FC connector
B. LC connector
C. RJFC connector
D. SC connector

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button. What is indicated by this icon displayed in the PowerPath Monitor Taskbar Icons? Exhibit Missing**
A. Degraded
B. Failed
C. Server Not Responding
D. Standard

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, what does the highlighted command do? **Exhibit Missing**
A. Creates a metaLUN
B. Creates a storage group
C. Expands a RAID group
D. Expands a storage group

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which SAN-based device provides critical server CPU offload and frees servers to perform application processing?
A. FC-SW
B. Host bus adapter
C. Multimode fibre cable

D. SFP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the maximum bandwidth that a switched fabric can reach?
A. Link rate times 128
B. Link rate times 2
C. Link rate times 256
D. Link rate times number of ports

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What does the Fibre Channel Management Integration, Management Information Base (FCMGMT- INT MIB) provide?
A. A heterogeneous method to manage multiple devices across a SAN
B. A simplified approach to setting up EMC arrays in new Fibre Channel environments
C. Applications used to set up Fibre Channel networks
D. The UDP protocol as a method to manage a SAN

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
In which situation does the Fibre Channel protocol reach data rates up to 10 GB/s?
A. When FC data is sent over IP through a multiprotocol router
B. When used as ISLs (E_Ports) on all switches
C. When used as ISLs (E_Ports) on supported switches
D. When used in a CAS environment (content addressed storage)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which ports are used for interswitch links (ISL)?
A. E_Ports
B. F_Ports
C. FL_Ports
D. N_Ports

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
The Fibre Channel standard defines a layer protocol. Which level serves as the transport layer?
A. FC-1
B. FC-2
C. FC-3
D. FC-4
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
The Fibre Channel standard defines a layer protocol. Which level serves as the physical layer?
A. FC-0
B. FC-1
C. FC-2

D. FC-3
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Which Fibre Channel layer is responsible for Process Logins?
A. FC-1
B. FC-2
C. FC-3

D. FC-4
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Which Fibre Channel layer covers media, the associated drivers, and receivers capable of operating at a wide range of speeds?
A. FC-0
B. FC-1
C. FC-4

D. UPL
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which Fibre Channel layer is responsible for link initialization and recovery?
A. FC-1
B. FC-2
C. FC-3

D. FC-4
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
How many bits are in a Fibre Channel address?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 64

D. 128

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In a switched fabric environment, what happens when a N_Port is connected to a F_Port?
A. The fabric login begins associating the physical address and the network MACaddress.
B. The fabric login begins associating the physical address and the NAA
C. The fabric login begins associating the physical address and the World Wide Name.
D. The fabric login begins associating the World Wide Name and the frame address.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
What identifies information exchanged during a port login?
A. Arbitrated loop physical address
B. Host address, frame size and port name
C. Host address, physical address
D. WWN, link speed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
In a switched fabric environment, what does a PLOGI process do?
A. Determines the presence or absence of a fabric environment
B. Establishes sessions between related processes on a source and target Fx_Port.
C. Port-to-port login by which Fibre Channel initiators establish sessions with targets
D. Queries the Name Service database for information about all other logged in ports

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which identifier uniquely associates the Fibre Channel port address?
A. WWN
B. WWNN
C. WWP
D. WWPN

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
When given the CLARiiON WWNN 50:06:01:60:80:60:01:b2, which set defines the WWN seed?
A. 00:60:01:b2
B. 50:06:01:60
C. 60:80:60:01:b2
D. 80:60:01:b2

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What are the three defined topologies for ANSI Fibre Channel standards?
A. Direct connect, arbitrated loop, switched fabric
B. Direct connect, point-to-point, switched fabric
C. Direct loop, arbitrated loop, switched loop
D. Point-to-point, arbitrated loop, switched fabric

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which type of Fibre Channel ports are used when creating an ISL?
A. E_Port
B. F_Port
C. N_Port
D. NL_Port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which bits contain the Domain ID in a Fabric Channel address?
A. First set of 8 bits
B. Fourth set of 8 bits
C. Second set of 8 bits
D. Third set of 8 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which bits contain the Area Address in a Fabric Channel address?
A. First set of 8 bits
B. Fourth set of 8 bits
C. Second set of 8 bits
D. Third set of 8 bits

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which bits contain the Port Field in a Fabric Channel address?
A. First set of 8 bits
B. Fourth set of 8 bits
C. Second set of 8 bits
D. Third set of 8 bits

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
Which three member types can be assigned to a zone on MDS-Series?
A. fcalias, disk and pWWN
B. fcalias, fWWN and FCID
C. fcalias, fWWN and pWWN
D. FCID, fWWN and pWWN

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
An application has experienced slow response time. What are the two main stops to measure I/O response time in the I/O path?
A. FCIP buffer credits over WAN and switch port speed
B. File system to OS and switch to host ports on arrays
C. Host HBAs to switch ports and switch ISL links
D. Storage array cache to disks and host devices to device drivers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
When zoning host HBAs to storage ports, what do EMC best practices recommend?
A. No more than two host HBAs and two storage ports in a zone
B. One storage port and only one host HBA in a zone
C. Only dual-port HBAs may be zoned together to a single storage port
D. Only two storage ports and one host HBA in a zone

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
What are the three tiers of Control Center architecture?
A. Console tier, Infrastructure tier, Agent tier
B. Console tier, Server tier, Infrastructure tier
C. Server tier, Infrastructure tier, reporting tier
D. User tier, Infrastructure tier, Agent tier

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
To restore the configuration of a B-Series switch, which command is used?
A. configDownload

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