Category: Cisco

[2017-December-Version] The Most Effective Cisco 200-355 Dumps CCNA Wireless Practice Test Video Study Guaranteed Success

What’s new in the Cisco 200-355 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355 WIFUND) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Wireless certification. The most effective Cisco 200-355 dumps CCNA Wireless practice test video study guaranteed success. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 200-355 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 200-355 exam.

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200-355 dumps

QUESTION 7
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to connect to the GUI of a WLC with interfaces as shown. Which IP address should the network administrator use?
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.3.2
E. 192.168.4.2

200-355 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What suite of algorithms results in slower connection rates when using 802.11N technology?
A. WPA2
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. AES
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.

B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION 14 You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 15  What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
200-355 exam Answer: BCE
QUESTION 16 What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C
QUESTION 17  Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh

C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
200-355 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19  When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
200-355 pdf Answer: BC
QUESTION 20 When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 21 A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays. Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays

B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
200-355 vce Answer: CD
QUESTION 22  A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C
QUESTION 23  A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6 hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape library with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do to successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
200-355 exam Answer: AC

QUESTION NO: 24
When deciding on the network bandwidth needed to connect front ends to an SAP system (using a
WAN connection), you should consider which of the following? (Choose three.)
A. The number of users connecting using this line.
B. Using SAP’s advanced online data compression technology (SAP ODCT) to minimize the network load. The software needed for this feature is sold separately.
C. The volume of “non-SAP-related” traffic (for example, office documents) using the same connection.
D. It might be useful to switch on the “Low speed connection” flag for the remote connections.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 25
SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information provided by the SLD.
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system from which help is being called.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the ‘System change option’ in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two.)
A. Modifiable
B. Repaired objects modifiable
C. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
D. Original objects modifiable
E. Not modifiable
200-355 pdf Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 28
Regarding the architecture of the SAP NetWeaver AS, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Central Services Instance of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java is only needed in a pure SAP NetWeaver AS Java (without SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP) installation.
B. The Java work processes are controlled by a dispatcher.
C. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP can communicate with each other.
D. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP use different database schemas.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of following is true for an SAP system with an Oracle database? ORACLE_HOME is …
A. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
B. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
C. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
D. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following statements is correct regarding online Oracle database backups?
A. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
B. The database does not write to online redo log files during online backups.
C. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
D. A complete online backup consists of tablespace data files and the control file, all of which are necessary for restoring the database to a consistent state.
E. Users may only read data and may not enter data while the backup is running.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command “its -mem”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are  true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true? (Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
200-355 pdf Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 34
In the MOUNT mode of an Oracle instance, the administrator can do which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.
B. Perform a media recovery.
C. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
D. Recreate the missing control file.
Answer: A,B

200-355 dumps

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[2017-December-Version] Helpful Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 CCENT Practice Exam Video Questions and Answers PDF 2017

What are some good blogs to learn Cisco 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (100-105 ICND1) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification.”Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 100-105 exam. The Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps are constantly being updated and modified, has the highest Cisco 100-105 exam training experience. If you want to pass the exam, please using our Pass4itsure Cisco 352-001 pdf. Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps Add to your shopping cart, it will let you see unexpected results.

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100-105 dumps

QUESTION 1
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
100-105 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.
QUESTION 3
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation/Reference:
If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the dire
QUESTION 4
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
100-105 dumps

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA th
QUESTION 5
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the topology and partial configurations shown in the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network administrator has finished configuring the NewYork and Sydney routers and issues the command ping
Sydney from the NewYork router. The ping fails. What command or set of commands should the network administrator
issue to correct this problem?
A. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#cdp enable
B. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# no shut
C. Sydney(config)# line vty 0 4 Sydney(config)# login Sydney(config)# password Sydney
D. Sydney(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.9
E. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#ip address 10.1.1.5 255.255.255.252 NewYork(config)# ip host
Sydney 10.1.1.5
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The IP addresses on the two Serial interfaces of two routers are not in the same subnet so they could not recognize each other and the ping failed. Therefore we must correct the IP addr
QUESTION 7
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash

F. Router# show processes
100-105 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see
what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.
QUESTION 8
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two
processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during t
QUESTION 9
Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet.
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been
correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will
then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128,
and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of
the lack of a gateway on R1.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the
administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three
QUESTION 11
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30

E. 192.169.42.34
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

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[2017-November-Version] Best Cisco Video Training For Most Reliable Cisco 300-115 Dumps SWITCH Exam Download for The Cisco Learning Network

Cisco 300-115 dumps in one month, is it possible? “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco 300-115 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Best Cisco video training for most reliable Cisco 300-115 dumps SWITCH exam download for The Cisco Learning Network. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dumps exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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300-115 dumps

QUESTION 20
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some
configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff. This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for administrative intervention.
QUESTION 21
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values. 
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template. The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs. The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing
overflow is sent to the CPU which can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.
QUESTION 22
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination. Reference:
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the other is passive. The table below sum- marizes the results for LACP channel establishment based on the configuration of each side of a link: LACP Channel Establishment S1 S2 Established?
On On Yes
Active/Passive Active Yes
On/Active/Passive Not Configured No
On Active No
Passive/On Passive No
Load balancing can only be configured globally. As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing. This is true for the switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have non matching parameters for load balancing.
QUESTION 24
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After you configure an EtherChannel, any configuration that you apply to the port-channel interface affects the EtherChannel; any configuration that you apply to the physical interfaces affects only the interface where you apply the configuration. Storm Control is an exception to this rule. For example, you cannot configure Storm Control on some of the members of an EtherChannel; Storm Control must be configured on all or none of the ports. If you configure Storm Control on only some of the ports, those ports will be dropped from the EtherChannel interface (put in suspended state). Therefore, you should configure Storm Control at the EtherChannel Interface level, and not at the physical interface level. Reference: 

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

210-260 dumps

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210-260 dumps

QUESTION: 35
Which method could you use to create a new formula in your report?
A. Right-click on the Formula Fields category in the Report Explorer and choose the New option.
B. Select the New Formula option from the Insert menu.
C. Select the New Formula option from the Format menu.
D. Right-click on the Formula Fields category in the Field Explorer and choose the New option.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 36
Which method can you use to display a field when specific criteria are met?
A. Conditionally format the field in the Field Editor.
B. Conditionally format the field in the Section Expert.
C. Conditionally format the field in the Select Expert.
D. Conditionally format the field in the Format Editor.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
How can you modify a report to display the word “low” when the field value is 0 – 4, and the word “high” when the field value is 5 – 9?
A. Create a new conditional suppression formula.
B. Use the Select Expert.
C. Create a new conditional display string formula.
D. Use the Highlighting Expert.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 38
Which two options can you select in the Group Expert? (Choose two.)
A. Bottom N
B. In specified order
C. In original order
D. Top N
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 39
Which two formulas will determine the number of elements in an array? (Choose two.)
A. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Count(simpleArray);
B. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Value(simpleArray);
C. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; UBound(simpleArray);
D. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Number(simpleArray);
210-260 pdf Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 40
Which formula returns the sum of Last Year’s Sales by Country?
A. sum(Customer.Last Year’s Sales,{Customer.Country})
B. sum({Customer.Last Year’s Sales}{Customer.Country})
C. sum({Customer.Last Year’s Sales},{Customer.Country})
D. sum({Customer.Country},{Customer.Last Year’s Sales})
Answer: C
QUESTION: 41
What type of data does Crystal Reports 2008 store when exporting to XML?
A. Static
B. Ad-hoc
C. Dynamic
D. On-Demand
210-260 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
You must change the logo used in your Crystal reports on a regular basis. Your company owns a license for Crystal Reports but does not own a license for BusinessObjects Enterprise. Which option can you use to easily change the logo?
A. Add to the Repository
B. Dynamic Graphic Location
C. Dynamic Prompt Parameter
D. Convert Picture Object
Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which option will you choose from the Group Select Expert to display the countries that generate the least orders?
A. Top N
B. Descending
C. No Sort
D. Bottom N
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 44
You are designing a Crystal report that contains a Gantt chart designed to assist in project management. Which fields must you select to create this chart?

A. One “For Each Record” field and one date field under “Show values”
B. Two “For Each Record” fields and one date field under “Show values”
C. Two “For Each Record” fields and two date fields under “Show values”
D. One “For Each Record” field and two date fields under “Show values”
Answer: D
QUESTION: 45
You want to add a drillable Xcelsius chart to a report. Which method must you use?
A. Send the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart via formula fields.
B. Map the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart in the Formula Editor.
C. Send the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart via shared variables.
D. Map the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart in the Flash Data Binding Expert.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 46
What is the reason you are unable to edit a report that was created against an ODBC data source?
A. The report field is not dynamic.
B. You did not authenticate to the data source.
C. The ODBC data source is too large for the report.
D. You set the report to read-only.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
You want to use conditional formatting to link a dynamic image object, corporate_logo.jpg, to a Crystal report. Which format should you use for referencing the location of the graphic image?
A. [C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg]
B. “C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg”
C. C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg
D. {C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg}

210-260 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
You create a report showing annual sales grouped by customer name but want to display results for customers in North America only. Which two techniques can you use to achieve this result? (Choose two.)
A. A drill-down group
B. The record selection formula
C. A cross-tab
D. The group selection formula
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 49
Which three units of measure can you use to define the page size? (Choose three.)
A. Inch
B. Twip
C. Pixel
D. Centimeter
210-260 vce Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 50
What is the default file version when you save a report to crystalreports.com?
A. Crystal Reports 9
B. Crystal Reports XI
C. Crystal Reports 4.5
D. Crystal Reports 2008
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51
You have made a decision to use an existing report as the corporate template. You have beenasked to create a sales report. Which two report objects will the template apply to the new report?
A. Detail Charts
B. Group Charts
C. Cross-tabs
D. Summary Fields
210-260 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 52
Which two export options can you use to display the correct Page N of M values in an exported file? (Choose two.)
A. Report Definition
B. Rich Text Format
C. Acrobat Format (PDF)
D. XML
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 53
What would cause Crystal Reports to refresh the report data?
A. Deleting an existing field
B. Adding a previously unused field to the report
C. Repositioning an existing field
D. Creating a calculation with two existing fields
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 54
Crystal Reports developers can extend the functionality of Crystal Reports by using add ins in the Report Designer. With the use of add-ins, what do report developers now have the ability to do?(Choose two.)
A. Add application specific toolbars

B. Launch other applications
C. Dynamically set page size
D. Set database connections based on a parameter
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 55
In which two sections of a report can you insert a Cross-Tab object? (Choose two.)
A. Group Header
B. Page Header
C. Report Header
D. Details
210-260 pdf Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 8
A BlackBerry device user lost her BlackBerry device. What should a system administrator do to prevent her confidential data from being accessed by another person? (Choose one.)
A. Delete her BlackBerry device user account in BlackBerry Manager.
B. In the IT Admin Tasks pane, select Erase Data and Disable Handheld.
C. Contact the service provider and request that service on the BlackBerry device be terminated.
D. In BlackBerry Manager, right-click on the username and choose Wipe Handheld.
E. Advise the BlackBerry device user to change her email account password immediately.
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A BlackBerry device appears to have stopped responding and an hour glass is displayed on the screen. The BlackBerry device is connected to the computer, but its status is shown as Disconnected in BlackBerry Desktop Manager. What are two ways to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Click Options or Settings on the BlackBerry device Home screen > Select Advanced Options > Click Wipe Handheld.
B. Perform a full back up of the BlackBerry device data and turn on advanced logging. Find the corrupt database indicated in the log, clear the corrupt database, and then restore the database to the BlackBerry device.
C. Install the latest version of BlackBerry Device Software on the computer and run the application loader process.
D. Remove the battery from the BlackBerry device while it is connected to the computer and run the application loader process. During the application loader process, re-insert the battery and complete the process.
E. Click Options or Settings on the BlackBerry device Home screen > Select Advance Settings > Click Application Configuration > Select Allow Java Script and Allow JVM.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 10
Which organizer data application is unsupported for synchronization in BlackBerry Desktop Manager 4.2.2? (Choose one.)
A. Sage ACT! 6.0
B. Novell GroupWise 6.5.7
C. Yahoo! Mail
D. IBM Lotus Notes 6.5
E. Microsoft Outlook 98
200-155 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 11
The Directory Number range for a customer dialing plan is 2500-2599. Which entry indicates the number of
digitals of the CDP Dialed Number (NCDP) for this dialing plan?
A. 4

B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.
The local Central Office required that all calls dialed utilize dialing, however users forget to dial the NPA for
local calls. Which DMI entry would be utilized to insert the NPA of 214 when a user dials 9- 774-3299?
A. DMI Table 1
B. DMI Table 2
C. DMI Table 3
D. DMI Table 4
200-155 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Your customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system equipped with System Errors and
Events Lookup pack 245 that provides the ability to display system messages on screen. When a system
message in received, which procedure should you use to look it up and display it on the screen?
A. Enter the system error number followed by <cr>For example, bug4080<cr>
B. Enter bug followed by the system error code and <cr>.For example, bugerr4080<cr>
C. Enter errcde followed by the system error code and <cr>.For example, errcde bug4080<cr>
D. Enter err followed by the system error code followed by <cr>.For example, err bug4080<cr>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can provide Exchange users
with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference. Based on the print-outs,
what capabilities are currently available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user cannot see the conferee display count or selectively disconnect callers.
B. Theuser can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers.
C. The user can see the conferee display count but cannot selectively disconnect callers.
D. The user cannot see the confereedisplay count butselectively disconnect callers.
200-155 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
In order to set up the Customer Data Block within Element Manager to support Zone Based Dialing, and
assuming Package 420 ZBD Package is installed and active, what needs to be done first?
A. Configure Numbering Zones.
B. Select the Private Dial Plan from the customer’s Features page.
C. Select the Public Dial Plan from the customer’s Features page.
D. Select the “Enable Numbering Zones” option from the customer’s Feature page.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Click the Exhibit button.
Consider the a customer’s dialing plan shown in the exhibit, which detail on-net and off-net dialing
requirements:
TIE trunks between Location A and Location B are currently out of service.
TIE trunks between Location B and Location D are currently out of service.
All over TIE trunks are fully functional.
Which route will a call to LOC 304-2001 take if it originates from location B?
A. TIE BD to LocationD.
B. TIEAB to Location A.
C. TIE BD to LocationD,then TIE CD to Location C then TIE AC to Location A
D. The callwill not leave the originating PBX
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer’s programmed database shown in the exhibit and where AC1 = 9, which RLI will call
complete when a station user dials 9-814-666-3434?
A. RLI 2
B. RLI 3
C. RLI 4
D. RLI 9
E. Call will not complete as dialed
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Click the Exhibit button.
You are adding ten digital telephones as required by a customer work order. The customer wants the user
to see the calling or called name associated with the number dialed.
Which Customer Level feature from the list shown in the exhibit, must first be provisioned before you can
enter names in at the station level?
A. Call Redirection
B. Feature Options
C. Listed Directory Number
D. Call Party Name Display
Correct Answer: D

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[2017-October-Version] Best Cisco CCNP 300-135 Dumps TSHOOT PDF Practise Questions on Youtube Online

How to get prepared for the Cisco 300-135 dumps? Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT 300-135) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching certification. Best Cisco CCNP 300-135 dumps TSHOOT pdf practise questions on youtube online. Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (118 Q&As) are verified by experts.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&amp;As: 118
Duration: 120 minutes (15-25 questions)

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The TSHOOT Cisco 300-135 dumps exam certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to:

  • Plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks
  • Use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting

300-135 dumps

QUESTION NO: 38
Formal communication includes which of these options?
A. Theusers title and family name plus social discussion
B. Theusers first name, no titles plus social discussion
C. Theusers title and no social discussion
D. The users first name, social discussion and business terminology
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
During a recent training course on effective telephone skills you learnt about effective call
management. Which call management principle must you fulfil to ensure that all the calls you
receive are handled in a professional and effective manner?
A. Focus on ending the call as rapidly as possible
B. Focus on thecallers accent and attempt to speak to him/her in the same way
C. Focus on doing what is needed to provide a satisfactory resolution
D. Focus on using silent time to catch up with your emails
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 40
Which option best describes the benefits of professionally managing a call?
A. Itoptimises talk time and reduces the volume of calls handled
B. It increases the problem resolution rate and the level of customer satisfaction
C. It increases the average call duration and establishes credibility for the Service Desk
D. It increases the confidence of the SDA and the level of customer satisfaction
300-135 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
How best might you use silent time during a call?
A. By reviewing with the userwhats happened with the call so far
B. By clearly identifying whether this is a Service Desk issue
C. By asking about the users emotional state

D. By describing the detail of the behind-the-scenes support process
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of these options is the most important thing to remember to ensure that your verbal skills
are good?
A. Learn a new word every day and use it in all conversations
B. Use well structured sentences to give better explanations
C. Speak with brevity to give clear explanations
D. Speak in a manner that matches the style of the user
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
Matching the users communication style is important because
A. It increases comprehension, understanding and customer satisfaction levels
B. It increases comprehension, understanding and reduces call volumes
C. It increases comprehension, understanding and reduces call duration
D. It increases comprehension, understanding and first contact resolution
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 44
What can you do to build rapport and match a users communication approach?
A. Try using formal levels of communication
B. Avoid emotional and overly-expressive vocabulary
C. Use similar technical terms to the user
D. Avoid using technical language completely
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
Which option is NOT a type of non-verbal communication?
A. Eye contact
B. Body language
C. Facial expressions
D. Open questions
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of these options is NOT a principle of active listening?
A. Sympathising with the user
B. Minimising distractions
C. Repeating for verification
D. Listening for ideas and images
300-135 exam Answer: A

QUESTION: 47
Which of the following BEST describes partners’ in the phrase people, processes,
products and partners”?
A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors

B. Customers
C. Internal departments
D. The facilities management function
Answer: A
QUESTION: 48
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on
a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management
300-135 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of
which level of understanding within knowledge management?
A. Data
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Governance
Answer: C
QUESTION: 50
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to
enable the implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter

300-135 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 51
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT
service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and
deployment management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request
management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and
configuration management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management, request fulfillment
300-135 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Answer: D
QUESTION: 54
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered
over those they have replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 55
Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to
maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
300-135 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a
data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 58
Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and
responsibilities in an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Incident model
C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
D. The Deming Cycle
300-135 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 59
Which process will regularly analyse incident data to identify discernible trends?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management
Answer: B

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Are You Going To Prepare CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 dumps? “Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations” is the 210-255 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Best Cisco 210-255 dumps SECOPS pdf exam CCNA Cyber Ops updated practice questions with Cisco video series is your best choice. Pass4itsure 210-255 dumps exam questions answers are updated (80 Q&As) are verified by experts.  Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-255.html dumps questions are collected and arranged based on latest exam questions and new information materials.

Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Updated: Aug 29, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION NO: 16
Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. Company has a Windows-based network. All
computers run on Windows XP. Manager of the Sales department complains Adam about the
unusual behavior of his computer. He told Adam that some pornographic contents are suddenly
appeared on his computer overnight. Adam suspects that some malicious software or Trojans
have been installed on the computer. He runs some diagnostics programs and Port scanners and
found that the Port 12345, 12346, and 20034 are open. Adam also noticed some tampering with
the Windows registry, which causes one application to run every time when Windows start.
Which of the following is the most likely reason behind this issue?
A. Cheops-ng is installed on the computer.
B. Elsave is installed on the computer.
C. NetBus is installed on the computer.
D. NetStumbler is installed on the computer.
210-255 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Buffer overflows are one of the major errors used for exploitation on the Internet today. A buffer
overflow occurs when a particular operation/function writes more data into a variable than the
variable was designed to hold.Which of the following are the two popular types of buffer overflows?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Dynamic buffer overflows
B. Stack based buffer overflow
C. Heap based buffer overflow
D. Static buffer overflows
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following are the primary goals of the incident 210-255 dumps handling team?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Freeze the scene.
B. Repair any damage caused by an incident.
C. Prevent any further damage.
D. Inform higher authorities.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
StackGuard (as used by Immunix), ssp/ProPolice (as used by OpenBSD), and Microsoft’s /GS
option use defense against buffer overflow attacks.
Answer: canary
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following tools is used for vulnerability scanning and calls Hydra to launch a
dictionary attack?
A. Whishker
B. Nessus
C. SARA
D. Nmap
210-255 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following statements are true about a keylogger?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It records all keystrokes on the victim’s computer in a predefined log file.
B. It can be remotely installed on a computer system.
C. It is a software tool used to trace all or specific activities of a user on a computer.
D. It uses hidden code to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He performs Web vulnerability scanning on the We-are-secure
server. The output of the scanning test is as follows:
C:\whisker.pl -h target_IP_address
— whisker / v1.4.0 / rain forest puppy / www.wiretrip.net — = – = – = – = – =
= Host: target_IP_address
= Server: Apache/1.3.12 (Win32) ApacheJServ/1.1
mod_ssl/2.6.4 OpenSSL/0.9.5a mod_perl/1.22
+ 200 OK: HEAD /cgi-bin/printenv
John recognizes /cgi-bin/printenv vulnerability (‘Printenv’ vulnerability) in the We_are_secure
server. Which of the following statements about ‘Printenv’ vulnerability are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. This vulnerability helps in a cross site scripting attack.
B. ‘Printenv’ vulnerability maintains a log file of user activities on the Website, which may be useful
for the attacker.
C. The countermeasure to ‘printenv’ vulnerability is to remove the CGI script.
D. With the help of ‘printenv’ vulnerability, an attacker can input specially crafted links and/or other
malicious scripts.
210-255  vce 
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following statements about buffer overflow is true?
A. It manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption.
B. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service
pack releases.
C. It is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept.
D. It is a false warning about a virus.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following commands is used to access Windows resources from Linux workstation?
A. mutt
B. scp
C. rsync
D. smbclient
210-255  exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Adam, a malicious hacker, wants to perform a reliable scan against a remote target. He is not
concerned about being stealth at this point.
Which of the following type of scans would be most accurate and reliable?
A. UDP sacn
B. TCP Connect scan
C. ACK scan
D. Fin scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer.
Using the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating 210-255  dumps system from which of the
following?
A. Brute force attack
B. Mail bombing
C. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
D. Malware installation from unknown Web sites
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following statements about Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It disrupts services to a specific computer.
B. It changes the configuration of the TCP/IP protocol.
C. It saturates network resources.
D. It disrupts connections between two computers, preventing communications between services

Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
You see the career section of a company’s Web site and analyze the job profile requirements. You
conclude that the company wants professionals who have a sharp knowledge of Windows server
2003 and Windows active directory installation and placement. Which of the following steps are
you using to perform hacking?
A. Scanning
B. Covering tracks
C. Reconnaissance
D. Gaining access
210-255  pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
John works as a Professional Penetration Tester. He has been assigned a project to test the
Website security of www.we-are-secure Inc. On the We-are-secure Website login page, he enters
=’or”=’ as a username and successfully logs on to the user page of the Web site. Now, John asks
the we-aresecure Inc. to improve the login page PHP script. Which of the following suggestions
can John give to improve the security of the we-are-secure Website login page from the SQL
injection attack?
A. Use the escapeshellarg() function
B. Use the session_regenerate_id() function
C. Use the mysql_real_escape_string() function for escaping input
D. Use the escapeshellcmd() function
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based
network. An attacker uses software that keeps trying password combinations until the correct
password is found. Which type of attack is this? A. Denial-of-Service
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Brute Force
D. Vulnerability
210-255  vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
You want to scan your network quickly to detect live hosts by using ICMP ECHO Requests. What
type of scanning will you perform to accomplish the task?
A. Idle scan
B. TCP SYN scan
C. XMAS scan
D. Ping sweep scan
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Adam, a malicious hacker is running a scan. Statistics of the scan is as follows:
Scan directed at open port: ClientServer
192.5.2.92:4079 ———FIN———>192.5.2.110:23192.5.2.92:4079 <—-NO RESPONSE—
—192.5.2.110:23
Scan directed at closed port:
ClientServer
192.5.2.92:4079 ———FIN———>192.5.2.110:23
192.5.2.92:4079<—–RST/ACK———-192.5.2.110:23
Which of the following types of port scan is Adam running?
A. ACK scan
B. FIN scan
C. XMAS scan

D. Idle scan
210-255  exam Answer: B
Explanation:

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[2017-August-Version From Google Drive] Best Cisco SENSS 300-206 Dumps Exam Test Video Questions for Cisco CCNP Security Study Guides with Accurate Answers

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 222

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300-206 dumps

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum amount of time that the team should spend in the daily scrum?
A. As long as it takes
B. 1 hour
C. 45 minutes
D. 15 minutes
E. 15 minutes, proportionally less for shorter Sprints
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Please select which statement is the most accurate:
A. Agile Development is an implementation of Scrum
B. Scrum is an implementation of Agile Development
C. Agile Development and Scrum are synonyms for the same methodology
D. Agile Development and Scrum are contrasting methodologies
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Running the daily scrum meeting;
B. Running the daily scrum meeting
C. Gathering requirements for Product Backlog items
D. Inspecting work at Sprint Review
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
How should items in the Product Backlog be ordered?
A. Alphabetically first and then by list order in the Product Backlog
B. Grouped by business features first and then chronologically by date of original business request
C. Prioritized by business importance first. The items that result in biggest ROI, must be priorized first;
D. Chronologically by date of original business request first and then by list order in the Product Backlog
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a role in the Scrum framework?
A. Database Admin
B. Development Team
C. QA Tester
D. Senior Developer
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
The Scrum Framework encompasses rules or guidelines for documentation?
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
The individual, detailed pieces of work that are needed to convert a product backlog item into a working
software component or solution are called:
A. User Stories
B. Use cases
C. Line items
D. Tasks
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Why does Scrum prevent Product Owners from changing Product Backlog items that are being worked on
during the Sprint?
A. The development team cannot meet their Sprint commitment to complete work if requirements are
changing
B. A Sprint cycle is not enough time for senior management review and approve changes
C. This forces Product Owners to focus on what is really important for the team to develop.
D. The development team must be able to limit the Product Owner authority
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is not a Scrum artifact?
A. User Stories
B. Sprint Backlog
C. Product Backlog
D. Incremento de Software
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You are the new Scrum Master at a company currently doing RUP in three month iterations. Your current
task in switching from RUP to Scrum is to define how long the Sprint cycle should be. In what units of time
should you define the sprint cycle?
A. A fixed amount of months
B. A fixed amount of weeks, excluding holidays
C. A fixed amount of days
D. A fixed amount of hours
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best explains what the term Sprint means in Scrum?
A. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to test and resolve any issues prior to product release
or shipment
B. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to work at a sustainable pace to finish select work.
C. A sprint is an agreed upon period of time for team members to select individual items from the product
backlog to work on

D. A sprint is a specific amount of days for a team to work as many hours as needed to finish assigned
work
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
_____________ can change the priority of items in the _________ backlog at any time.
A. The Team; Product
B. The Product Owner(s); Sprint
C. The Product Owner(s); Product
D. The Scrum Master; Sprint
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a Scrum cycle activity?
A. Sprint retrospective
B. Daily scrum
C. Weekly inspection
D. Sprint planning
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements best describes Product Backlog items?
A. Undefined or poorly defined Product Backlog items should be placed on the Product Backlog with a low
priority
B. All Product Backlog items are the result of a(n) analysis, requirements and/or design phase(s).
C. Undefined or poorly defined Product Backlog items should be kept out from the Product Backlog until
sufficient detail is known.
D. Every Product Backlog item, whether low priority or high priority, should possess sufficient detail for the
Team to complete in a Sprint.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
________________ constitute the Sprint Backlog and are often estimated in hours?
A. User Stories
B. Use Cases
C. Features
D. Tasks
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
A Cisco ASA is configured for TLS proxy. When should the security appliance force remote IP phones
connecting to the phone proxy through the internet to be in secured mode?
A. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in non-secure mode
B. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in secure mode only
C. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not part of a cluster
D. When the Cisco ASA is configured for IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
For which management session types does ASDM allow a maximum simultaneous connection limit to be
set?
A. ASDM, Telnet, SSH
B. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, console
C. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, VTY
D. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, other
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A

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[2017-May-Version] First-hand Cisco CCDP 300-320 Dumps ARCH Exam Video Experience are Important

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Exam Code: 300-320
Total Questions: 304 Q&As
Last Updated: May 14, 2017

Objectives of 300-320 Exam:

CCDP 300-320 ARCH describe the following topics areas

  • Create stable, secure, and scalable routing designs for IS-IS
  • Design a network to support network programmability
  • Design Extranet connectivity

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300-320

Examzoon Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Q&As  

QUESTION 1
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical
gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose
two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 3
Which two ways to support secure transport of multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. Use spoke-to-spoke design.
B. Use IPsec over GRE tunnel.
C. Use GET VPN.
D. Use NBMA instead of broadcast.
E. Disable encryption for multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e
commerce network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these
design requirements?
A. virtual contexts
B. private VLANs
C. admission control
D. virtual private network
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere solution?
A. Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on the network
B. Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine
C. Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network
D. To increase the number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which option is correct when using VSS to combine two physical switches into one logical switch?
A. Both data planes forward traffic simultaneously.
B. Only one data plane forwards traffic, while the other data plane is on standby.
C. Both control planes forward traffic simultaneously.
D. Control planes are combined into one virtual control plane.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming
scenario?
A. VRRP
B. BGP
C. IPsec
D. SSL
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the
Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)
A. A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B. Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote
nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C. Use manual split horizon
D. Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 9
Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and
backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. VRRP
D. RIP
Correct Answer: C

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2017 Latest Release CCNA 200-125 Dumps Real Exam Questions And Answers Video

Candidates should also have a good understanding of infrastructure services, such as DNS, DHCP, TFTP, NTP, and NAT. Candidates must also be able to demonstrate an understanding of infrastructure maintenance, including monitoring, device management, device configuration, security, device hardening, maintenance, and troubleshooting. Candidates should also be able to configure monitoring and device 200-125 dumps management and troubleshoot connectivity issues. Candidates should also be able to configure, verify, and troubleshoot HSRP and access lists for traffic filtering as well as verify ACLS with the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL analysis tool.

Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Apr 23, 2017
Q&As: 637
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-125.html

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♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Q&As♥♥

 QUESTION 85
Which UDP port range must be open between the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager and the PBX? (Choose one.)
A. 32768-61000
B. 16385-32767
C. 51000-51140
D. 55000-65000
E. 80000-96384
Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 86

There are three instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server sharing the same BlackBerry Configuration Database. When BlackBerry MVS has not been configured for high availability, what is the minimum number of BlackBerry MVS Session Managers required? (Choose one.)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Six

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 87
A BlackBerry MVS 5.0 enabled user reports no audio each time a PBX-initiated call is made. When the MVS administrator reproduces the issue, the call is automatically disconnected after less than 10 seconds. Which action is required to resolve the issue? (Choose one.)
A. Change the user’s number from the mobile number to the extension number
B. Verify the user’s Cisco Unified Communications Manager account password within the BlackBerry MVS Console
C. Verify the user’s BlackBerry Device Software to at least 5.0
D. Verify the user’s mobile number in the BlackBerry MVS Console to reflect the user current number
E. Change the user’s mobile information to be IM restricted on the user blackberry device

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 88
What is the purpose of installing a second BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one.)
A. To enable a round robin high availability of the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. To enable a round robin high availability of the BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. To allow the communication with the PBX
D. To allow Active/Standby High Availability to be enabled for the BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
E. To allow Active/Standby High Availability to be enabled for the BlackBerry MVS Console

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 89
When a BlackBerry MVS user places a Wi-Fi call to an internal number, what must occur to complete the call? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager must send a call to the user mobile number
B. The user must be set up to use PBX-initiated calling for both inbound and outbound calls
C. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server must compress, encrypt, and send ANI information to the user BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager must send a call establishment request to the PBX using SIP over a TCP port
E. The BlackBerry MVS Client must compress, encrypt, and send a call establishment request to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server over the Wi-Fi network
Correct Answer: E

 

 

200-125 dumps QUESTION 90
When can BlackBerry MVS Server software be installed on a virtual machine? (Choose one.)
A. Only in lab environments
B. Only for single site deployments
C. When using VMware ESX Server 3.0.2 or later
D. When using VMware ESX Server 2.0.1 or later
E. When using VMware ESX Server 3.5.0 or later

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 91
Which are features of BlackBerry MVS 5.0? (Choose three.)
A. Move call from BlackBerry device to desk phone
B. Caller restrictions
C. Call Forwarding
D. Move call from desk phone to BlackBerry device
E. Default phone number selection

Correct Answer: ABE

 

 

QUESTION 92
What happens to current BlackBerry MVS users when an administrator changes an option in a template? (Choose one.)
A. The new settings are immediately propagated to the BlackBerry devices “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -100% Guaranteed 32 BlackBerry BCP-520: Practice Exam
B. The new settings are propagated to the BlackBerry devices when the BlackBerry Enterprise Server administrator resends the IT Policy to the devices
C. The new settings do not affect current BlackBerry MVS users
D. The change in settings causes all BlackBerry devices to re-register and the new settings are applied

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 93
Which two of the following can be restricted by the BlackBerry MVS administrator using the BlackBerry MVS class of service configuration? (Choose two)
A. BlackBerry MVS user access to Voice over Wi-Fi calling
B. Calling to on-network, local, or long distance numbers
C. User access to specific BlackBerry MVS features
D. User access to switching BlackBerry devices

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 94
Within the BlackBerry MVS Console, where are call direction settings configured for BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile calls? (Choose one.)
A. Class of Service
B. Templates
C. Users
D. Telephony Connectors
E. Session Managers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Which three codecs are supported by the BlackBerry MVS Client for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose three.)
A. AMR
B. G.711 A-law
C. G.711 ?lawG.711 ?-law
D. G.722
E. G.729
F. WPA2

Correct Answer: BCE

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