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[2017-December-Version] The Most Effective Cisco 200-355 Dumps CCNA Wireless Practice Test Video Study Guaranteed Success

What’s new in the Cisco 200-355 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355 WIFUND) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Wireless certification. The most effective Cisco 200-355 dumps CCNA Wireless practice test video study guaranteed success. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 200-355 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 200-355 exam.

Cisco 200-355 WIFUND Exam focuses on knowledge and experts to explain the principles of RF mathematics, Describe usable channel and power combination and Describe physical infrastructure connections.  Students who complete https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-355.html dumps WIFUND may get Cisco Certified Network Associative Wireless Certification.

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200-355 dumps

QUESTION 7
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to connect to the GUI of a WLC with interfaces as shown. Which IP address should the network administrator use?
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.3.2
E. 192.168.4.2

200-355 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What suite of algorithms results in slower connection rates when using 802.11N technology?
A. WPA2
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. AES
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.

B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION 14 You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 15  What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
200-355 exam Answer: BCE
QUESTION 16 What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C
QUESTION 17  Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh

C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
200-355 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19  When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
200-355 pdf Answer: BC
QUESTION 20 When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 21 A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays. Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays

B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
200-355 vce Answer: CD
QUESTION 22  A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C
QUESTION 23  A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6 hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape library with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do to successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
200-355 exam Answer: AC

QUESTION NO: 24
When deciding on the network bandwidth needed to connect front ends to an SAP system (using a
WAN connection), you should consider which of the following? (Choose three.)
A. The number of users connecting using this line.
B. Using SAP’s advanced online data compression technology (SAP ODCT) to minimize the network load. The software needed for this feature is sold separately.
C. The volume of “non-SAP-related” traffic (for example, office documents) using the same connection.
D. It might be useful to switch on the “Low speed connection” flag for the remote connections.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 25
SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information provided by the SLD.
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system from which help is being called.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the ‘System change option’ in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two.)
A. Modifiable
B. Repaired objects modifiable
C. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
D. Original objects modifiable
E. Not modifiable
200-355 pdf Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 28
Regarding the architecture of the SAP NetWeaver AS, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Central Services Instance of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java is only needed in a pure SAP NetWeaver AS Java (without SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP) installation.
B. The Java work processes are controlled by a dispatcher.
C. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP can communicate with each other.
D. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP use different database schemas.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of following is true for an SAP system with an Oracle database? ORACLE_HOME is …
A. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
B. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
C. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
D. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following statements is correct regarding online Oracle database backups?
A. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
B. The database does not write to online redo log files during online backups.
C. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
D. A complete online backup consists of tablespace data files and the control file, all of which are necessary for restoring the database to a consistent state.
E. Users may only read data and may not enter data while the backup is running.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command “its -mem”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are  true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true? (Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
200-355 pdf Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 34
In the MOUNT mode of an Oracle instance, the administrator can do which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.
B. Perform a media recovery.
C. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
D. Recreate the missing control file.
Answer: A,B

200-355 dumps

The Cisco Certified Network Associative Wireless Certification covers the Cisco Wireless Networking Technology topics. The Cisco 200-355 dumps Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals Exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of Certification Area. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals”, also known as 200-355 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure 200-355 dumps exam questions answers are updated (421 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-355.html dumps is CCNA Wireless.

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[2017-December-Version] Helpful Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 CCENT Practice Exam Video Questions and Answers PDF 2017

What are some good blogs to learn Cisco 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (100-105 ICND1) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification.”Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 100-105 exam. The Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps are constantly being updated and modified, has the highest Cisco 100-105 exam training experience. If you want to pass the exam, please using our Pass4itsure Cisco 352-001 pdf. Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps Add to your shopping cart, it will let you see unexpected results.

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100-105 dumps

QUESTION 1
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
100-105 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.
QUESTION 3
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation/Reference:
If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the dire
QUESTION 4
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
100-105 dumps

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA th
QUESTION 5
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the topology and partial configurations shown in the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network administrator has finished configuring the NewYork and Sydney routers and issues the command ping
Sydney from the NewYork router. The ping fails. What command or set of commands should the network administrator
issue to correct this problem?
A. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#cdp enable
B. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# no shut
C. Sydney(config)# line vty 0 4 Sydney(config)# login Sydney(config)# password Sydney
D. Sydney(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.9
E. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#ip address 10.1.1.5 255.255.255.252 NewYork(config)# ip host
Sydney 10.1.1.5
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The IP addresses on the two Serial interfaces of two routers are not in the same subnet so they could not recognize each other and the ping failed. Therefore we must correct the IP addr
QUESTION 7
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash

F. Router# show processes
100-105 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see
what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.
QUESTION 8
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two
processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during t
QUESTION 9
Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet.
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been
correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will
then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128,
and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of
the lack of a gateway on R1.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the
administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three
QUESTION 11
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30

E. 192.169.42.34
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

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[2017-December-Version] Latest Updated Microsoft Windows 070-480 Dumps Practice Test Exam Questions for Microsoft Certification

The Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3 (070-480 Windows) exam is a 90-minute 247Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA certification.”Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-480 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-480 exam. Latest updated Microsoft Windows 070-480 dumps practice test exam questions for Microsoft certification.

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070-480 dumps

Question No : 1 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields: An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example, [email protected]) A nine-digit number that allows optional hyphens after the second and fifth character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55-5555) You need to use the correct expression to validate the input. Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
070-480 dumps

070-480 dumps

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” /> A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form. You need to add validation to the control. Which code segment should you use?
070-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-480 exam Answer: D
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and jQuery. The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address. You need to implement this functionality. How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
070-480 dumps
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an application that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service. The application interacts with the service by using the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-480 dumps

You need to authenticate to the WCF service. What should you do?
A. At line 11, add the following lines of code,username: yourusername,password: yourpassword
B. At line 11, add the following line of code,credentials: prompt
C. At line 06, replace the code with the following line of code.Username=username&password=psssword”,
D. At line 11, add the following line of code. The username and password will be stored in an XML file,credentials: credentials.xml
070-480 dumps Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server. The page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

070-480 dumps

An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the page. You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML. <label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web service returns the
following JSON object.
{
“Confirmation”: “1234”,
“FirstName”: “John”
}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val (JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text (JSONObject.Confirmation);
070-480 pdf Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 8 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are developing a web application that retrieves data from a web service. The data
being retrieved is a custom binary datatype named bint. The data can also be represented in XML. Two existing methods named parseXml() and parseBint() are defined on the page.
The application must:
Retrieve and parse data from the web service using binary format if possible Retrieve and parse the data from the web service using XML when binary format is not possible  You need to develop the application to meet the requirements.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

070-480 dumps
070-480 dumps
070-480 dumps

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML. <input id = “txtValue” />
A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form. You need to add validation to the text box control.
Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
070-480 vce Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 10 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are developing a web page for runners who register for a race. The page includes a slider control that allows users to enter their age.
You have the following requirements:
All runners must enter their age. Applications must not be accepted from runners less than 18 years of age or greater than 90 years. The slider control must be set to the average age (37) of all registered runners when the page is first displayed. You need to ensure that the slider control meets the requirements. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate word or number to the correct location in the answer area. Each word or number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
070-480 dumps

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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QUESTION 20
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some
configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff. This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for administrative intervention.
QUESTION 21
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values. 
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template. The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs. The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing
overflow is sent to the CPU which can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.
QUESTION 22
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination. Reference:
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the other is passive. The table below sum- marizes the results for LACP channel establishment based on the configuration of each side of a link: LACP Channel Establishment S1 S2 Established?
On On Yes
Active/Passive Active Yes
On/Active/Passive Not Configured No
On Active No
Passive/On Passive No
Load balancing can only be configured globally. As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing. This is true for the switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have non matching parameters for load balancing.
QUESTION 24
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After you configure an EtherChannel, any configuration that you apply to the port-channel interface affects the EtherChannel; any configuration that you apply to the physical interfaces affects only the interface where you apply the configuration. Storm Control is an exception to this rule. For example, you cannot configure Storm Control on some of the members of an EtherChannel; Storm Control must be configured on all or none of the ports. If you configure Storm Control on only some of the ports, those ports will be dropped from the EtherChannel interface (put in suspended state). Therefore, you should configure Storm Control at the EtherChannel Interface level, and not at the physical interface level. Reference: 

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 35
Which method could you use to create a new formula in your report?
A. Right-click on the Formula Fields category in the Report Explorer and choose the New option.
B. Select the New Formula option from the Insert menu.
C. Select the New Formula option from the Format menu.
D. Right-click on the Formula Fields category in the Field Explorer and choose the New option.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 36
Which method can you use to display a field when specific criteria are met?
A. Conditionally format the field in the Field Editor.
B. Conditionally format the field in the Section Expert.
C. Conditionally format the field in the Select Expert.
D. Conditionally format the field in the Format Editor.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
How can you modify a report to display the word “low” when the field value is 0 – 4, and the word “high” when the field value is 5 – 9?
A. Create a new conditional suppression formula.
B. Use the Select Expert.
C. Create a new conditional display string formula.
D. Use the Highlighting Expert.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 38
Which two options can you select in the Group Expert? (Choose two.)
A. Bottom N
B. In specified order
C. In original order
D. Top N
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 39
Which two formulas will determine the number of elements in an array? (Choose two.)
A. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Count(simpleArray);
B. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Value(simpleArray);
C. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; UBound(simpleArray);
D. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Number(simpleArray);
210-260 pdf Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 40
Which formula returns the sum of Last Year’s Sales by Country?
A. sum(Customer.Last Year’s Sales,{Customer.Country})
B. sum({Customer.Last Year’s Sales}{Customer.Country})
C. sum({Customer.Last Year’s Sales},{Customer.Country})
D. sum({Customer.Country},{Customer.Last Year’s Sales})
Answer: C
QUESTION: 41
What type of data does Crystal Reports 2008 store when exporting to XML?
A. Static
B. Ad-hoc
C. Dynamic
D. On-Demand
210-260 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
You must change the logo used in your Crystal reports on a regular basis. Your company owns a license for Crystal Reports but does not own a license for BusinessObjects Enterprise. Which option can you use to easily change the logo?
A. Add to the Repository
B. Dynamic Graphic Location
C. Dynamic Prompt Parameter
D. Convert Picture Object
Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which option will you choose from the Group Select Expert to display the countries that generate the least orders?
A. Top N
B. Descending
C. No Sort
D. Bottom N
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 44
You are designing a Crystal report that contains a Gantt chart designed to assist in project management. Which fields must you select to create this chart?

A. One “For Each Record” field and one date field under “Show values”
B. Two “For Each Record” fields and one date field under “Show values”
C. Two “For Each Record” fields and two date fields under “Show values”
D. One “For Each Record” field and two date fields under “Show values”
Answer: D
QUESTION: 45
You want to add a drillable Xcelsius chart to a report. Which method must you use?
A. Send the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart via formula fields.
B. Map the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart in the Formula Editor.
C. Send the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart via shared variables.
D. Map the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart in the Flash Data Binding Expert.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 46
What is the reason you are unable to edit a report that was created against an ODBC data source?
A. The report field is not dynamic.
B. You did not authenticate to the data source.
C. The ODBC data source is too large for the report.
D. You set the report to read-only.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
You want to use conditional formatting to link a dynamic image object, corporate_logo.jpg, to a Crystal report. Which format should you use for referencing the location of the graphic image?
A. [C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg]
B. “C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg”
C. C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg
D. {C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg}

210-260 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
You create a report showing annual sales grouped by customer name but want to display results for customers in North America only. Which two techniques can you use to achieve this result? (Choose two.)
A. A drill-down group
B. The record selection formula
C. A cross-tab
D. The group selection formula
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 49
Which three units of measure can you use to define the page size? (Choose three.)
A. Inch
B. Twip
C. Pixel
D. Centimeter
210-260 vce Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 50
What is the default file version when you save a report to crystalreports.com?
A. Crystal Reports 9
B. Crystal Reports XI
C. Crystal Reports 4.5
D. Crystal Reports 2008
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51
You have made a decision to use an existing report as the corporate template. You have beenasked to create a sales report. Which two report objects will the template apply to the new report?
A. Detail Charts
B. Group Charts
C. Cross-tabs
D. Summary Fields
210-260 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 52
Which two export options can you use to display the correct Page N of M values in an exported file? (Choose two.)
A. Report Definition
B. Rich Text Format
C. Acrobat Format (PDF)
D. XML
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 53
What would cause Crystal Reports to refresh the report data?
A. Deleting an existing field
B. Adding a previously unused field to the report
C. Repositioning an existing field
D. Creating a calculation with two existing fields
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 54
Crystal Reports developers can extend the functionality of Crystal Reports by using add ins in the Report Designer. With the use of add-ins, what do report developers now have the ability to do?(Choose two.)
A. Add application specific toolbars

B. Launch other applications
C. Dynamically set page size
D. Set database connections based on a parameter
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 55
In which two sections of a report can you insert a Cross-Tab object? (Choose two.)
A. Group Header
B. Page Header
C. Report Header
D. Details
210-260 pdf Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 8
A BlackBerry device user lost her BlackBerry device. What should a system administrator do to prevent her confidential data from being accessed by another person? (Choose one.)
A. Delete her BlackBerry device user account in BlackBerry Manager.
B. In the IT Admin Tasks pane, select Erase Data and Disable Handheld.
C. Contact the service provider and request that service on the BlackBerry device be terminated.
D. In BlackBerry Manager, right-click on the username and choose Wipe Handheld.
E. Advise the BlackBerry device user to change her email account password immediately.
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A BlackBerry device appears to have stopped responding and an hour glass is displayed on the screen. The BlackBerry device is connected to the computer, but its status is shown as Disconnected in BlackBerry Desktop Manager. What are two ways to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Click Options or Settings on the BlackBerry device Home screen > Select Advanced Options > Click Wipe Handheld.
B. Perform a full back up of the BlackBerry device data and turn on advanced logging. Find the corrupt database indicated in the log, clear the corrupt database, and then restore the database to the BlackBerry device.
C. Install the latest version of BlackBerry Device Software on the computer and run the application loader process.
D. Remove the battery from the BlackBerry device while it is connected to the computer and run the application loader process. During the application loader process, re-insert the battery and complete the process.
E. Click Options or Settings on the BlackBerry device Home screen > Select Advance Settings > Click Application Configuration > Select Allow Java Script and Allow JVM.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 10
Which organizer data application is unsupported for synchronization in BlackBerry Desktop Manager 4.2.2? (Choose one.)
A. Sage ACT! 6.0
B. Novell GroupWise 6.5.7
C. Yahoo! Mail
D. IBM Lotus Notes 6.5
E. Microsoft Outlook 98
200-155 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 11
The Directory Number range for a customer dialing plan is 2500-2599. Which entry indicates the number of
digitals of the CDP Dialed Number (NCDP) for this dialing plan?
A. 4

B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.
The local Central Office required that all calls dialed utilize dialing, however users forget to dial the NPA for
local calls. Which DMI entry would be utilized to insert the NPA of 214 when a user dials 9- 774-3299?
A. DMI Table 1
B. DMI Table 2
C. DMI Table 3
D. DMI Table 4
200-155 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Your customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system equipped with System Errors and
Events Lookup pack 245 that provides the ability to display system messages on screen. When a system
message in received, which procedure should you use to look it up and display it on the screen?
A. Enter the system error number followed by <cr>For example, bug4080<cr>
B. Enter bug followed by the system error code and <cr>.For example, bugerr4080<cr>
C. Enter errcde followed by the system error code and <cr>.For example, errcde bug4080<cr>
D. Enter err followed by the system error code followed by <cr>.For example, err bug4080<cr>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can provide Exchange users
with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference. Based on the print-outs,
what capabilities are currently available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user cannot see the conferee display count or selectively disconnect callers.
B. Theuser can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers.
C. The user can see the conferee display count but cannot selectively disconnect callers.
D. The user cannot see the confereedisplay count butselectively disconnect callers.
200-155 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
In order to set up the Customer Data Block within Element Manager to support Zone Based Dialing, and
assuming Package 420 ZBD Package is installed and active, what needs to be done first?
A. Configure Numbering Zones.
B. Select the Private Dial Plan from the customer’s Features page.
C. Select the Public Dial Plan from the customer’s Features page.
D. Select the “Enable Numbering Zones” option from the customer’s Feature page.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Click the Exhibit button.
Consider the a customer’s dialing plan shown in the exhibit, which detail on-net and off-net dialing
requirements:
TIE trunks between Location A and Location B are currently out of service.
TIE trunks between Location B and Location D are currently out of service.
All over TIE trunks are fully functional.
Which route will a call to LOC 304-2001 take if it originates from location B?
A. TIE BD to LocationD.
B. TIEAB to Location A.
C. TIE BD to LocationD,then TIE CD to Location C then TIE AC to Location A
D. The callwill not leave the originating PBX
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer’s programmed database shown in the exhibit and where AC1 = 9, which RLI will call
complete when a station user dials 9-814-666-3434?
A. RLI 2
B. RLI 3
C. RLI 4
D. RLI 9
E. Call will not complete as dialed
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Click the Exhibit button.
You are adding ten digital telephones as required by a customer work order. The customer wants the user
to see the calling or called name associated with the number dialed.
Which Customer Level feature from the list shown in the exhibit, must first be provisioned before you can
enter names in at the station level?
A. Call Redirection
B. Feature Options
C. Listed Directory Number
D. Call Party Name Display
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 230

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QUESTION 53
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system. Depending on the value in a source column, the package redirects rows to one of five different data flow paths. You need to add a data flow transformation to support the package redirection.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. Conditional Split
B. pjvot
C. Multicast
D. Lookup
70-463 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that contains a project Connection Manager and multiple packages. All packages in the project must connect to the same database. The server name for the database must be
set by using a parameter named ParamConnection when any package in the project is executed. You need to develop this project with the least amount of development effort. What should you do? (Each answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a package parameter named ConnectionName in each package.
B. Edit each package Connection Manager. Set the ConnectionName property to @
[$Project::ParamConnection].
C. Edit the project Connection Manager in Solution Explorer. Set the ConnectionName property to @
[$Project::ParamConnection].
D. Set the Sensitive property of the parameter to True.
E. Create a project parameter named ConnectionName.
F. Set the Required property of the parameter to True.
Correct Answer: BEF
Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)  You are writing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that transfers data from
a legacy system. Data integrity in the legacy system is very poor. Invalid rows are discarded by the package but must be logged to a CSV file for auditing purposes. You need to establish the best technique to log these invalid rows while minimizing the amount of development effort.What should you do?
A. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
B. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
C. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
D. uses the dtutil /copy command.
E. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL
Server to store the configuration.
F. Create an OnError event handler.
G. uses the Project Deployment Wizard.
H. Use the gacutil command.
I. Create a reusable custom logging component.
J. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
K. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
70-463 dumps 
Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)  You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to the test
environment. A package in the project uses a custom task component. You need to ensure that the custom object is deployed on the test environment correctly. What should you do?
A. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component.
C. Create an OnError event handler.
D. Use the gacutil command.
E. Use the dtutil /copy command.
F. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL Server to store the configuration.
G. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
H. Use the Project Deployment Wizard.
I. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
J. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
K. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 57 – (Topic 1) You are deploying a project to the SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) catalog. You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the production environment with the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an On Error event handler.
B. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
C. Use the gacutil command.
D. Create a reusable custom logging component.
E. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
F. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Use the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
H. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
I. Use the dtutil /copy command.
J. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL
Server to store the configuration.
K. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
70-463 pdf 
Answer: G
Reference:
Question No : 58 – (Topic 1) To ease the debugging of packages, you standardize the SQL Server Integration Services
(SSIS) package logging methodology. The methodology has the following requirements: Centralized logging in SQL Server
Simple deployment Availability of log information through reports or T-SQL Automatic purge of older log entries Configurable log details You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing
the amount of deployment and development effort. What should you do?
A. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
B. Use the gacutil command.
C. Create an OnError event handler.
D. Create a reusable custom logging component.
E. Use the dtutil /copy command.
F. Use the Project Deployment Wizard.
G. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
I. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
K. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL
Server to store the configuration.
Answer: I
Question No : 59 – (Topic 1)
You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model for a company. The source data for the company is stored in a single table that contains the manager-to subordinate relationships. You need to create a hierarchy representing the organizational structure of the company. Which hierarchy type should you use?
A. Natural
B. Explicit
C. Parent
D. Recursive
70-463 vce 
Answer: D

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QUESTION 38
You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system.
How can you determine the current Support Package level of all ABAP software components? (Choose
two)
A. Choose “System -> Status -> Component information”.
B. Use transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
C. Run the report “RSPFPAR”.
D. Launch the ICF path “/sap/bc/icf/info” in a Web browser.
E. Depending on the operating system, use the “disp+work -v” or “dw -v” command.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 39
During the startup of the central instance of an SAP system based on AS ABAP+Java 7.0x (dual stack),
different processes are started. Which processes are started by the ABAP Dispatcher by default? (Choose

three)
A. AS ABAP Message Server
B. AS ABAP Work Processes
C. AS Java Message Server
D. Internet Communication Manager (ICM) if parameter rdisp/start_icman is set to “true”
E. JControl
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 40
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the SAP integrated ITS?
A. In the SAP system, using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON (Internal ITS: Status)
C. On operating system level, using the command “icmon”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM (ICM Monitor)
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
How many clients can exist in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. 65,536
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
You have opened a CCMS monitor in transaction RZ20 (CCMS Monitor Sets).
What can you conclude by analyzing the attached screenshot?
A. Instances 00 and 01 of SAP system DEV on host twdf1921 are not running.
B. Instances 00 and 01 of SAP system DEV on host twdf1921 are running, but cannot be reached by
CCMS.
C. All nodes below the MTE “twdf1921_DEV_00” have the status “red”.
D. At least one node below the MTE “twdf1921_DEV_00” has the status “red”.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which of the following monitoring tools are designed to monitor AS Java-based SAP systems? (Choose
two)
A. Transaction ST02 (Tune Summary) in a central AS ABAP-based monitoring system
B. SAP NetWeaver Administrator (NWA)
C. Config tool
D. Transaction RZ20 (CCMS Monitor Sets) in a central AS ABAP-based monitoring system
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 44
Which ABAP software components are installed by default during the installation of an SAP ECC system?
(Choose three)
A. SAP_CRM
B. SAP_HR
C. SAP_BW
D. SAP_ERP
E. SAP_APPL
070-489 vce Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 45
For which of the following do you need to install and configure SAProuter? (Choose two)
A. EarlyWatch Service session done remotely by an SAP Support employee
B. Connection to https://scn.sap.com
C. Remote Consulting from SAP
D. Connection to https://service.sap.com
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 46
You are running an AS Java-based SAP system. You are maintaining local settings using the Visual
Administrator. These settings become effective immediately. You want to make sure that the new settings
are still valid after the next restart of your system. How do you fulfill this requirement?
A. No further steps are necessary in this scenario.
B. Mark check box “Activate in profile”.
C. Maintain the same settings in the global settings using the Visual Administrator.
D. Maintain the same settings in the Config Tool.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
You have developed repository objects for AS ABAP-based SAP systems. Your development work is being
logged within a transport request.
What happens when you release your task in the Transport Organizer (transaction SE09) of the
development system?
A. Repository locks are released for the respective repository objects.
B. The repository objects can no longer be changed.
C. Object entries are copied into the object list of the transport request for the respective repository objects.
D. The export process starts.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system with several instances.
Where are enqueue locks stored that are managed by the AS ABAP system?
A. In the shared memory of each instance
B. In the database of the SAP system
C. In the shared memory of the instance where the enqueue work process is running
D. In the shared memory of the ABAP message server
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
You are a transport administrator for an AS ABAP-based SAP system landscape. In the import queue of a
single SAP system, you select multiple transport requests to be imported together.
What happens when these transport requests are imported? (Choose two)
A. If an object is included in more than one transport request, only the version in the last transport request
is activated/generated (according to the sequence in the import queue).
B. If an object is included in more than one transport request, it is first stored in the shadow repository. You
can then activate/generate selected versions from the shadow repository later.
C. If an object is included in more than one transport request, you can specify which object version will be
activated/generated using unconditional (import) modes.
D. The objects in the first transport request are imported and activated/generated first, then the objects in
the second transport request, and so on.
E. All objects in all the selected transport requests are merged together.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 50
You are performing an SAP system upgrade of an AS ABAP-based development system.
When do you perform the modification adjustments for ABAP Dictionary objects using transaction SPDD
(Modification Adjustment Dictionary)?
A. In the upgrade preparation phases (Roadmap steps 1-4)
B. After the upgrade (EXIT)
C. During the upgrade before activation of table definitions (ACT_UPG)
D. During the upgrade after the first kernel switch (KX_SWITCH_1)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: C

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How to get prepared for the Cisco 300-135 dumps? Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT 300-135) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching certification. Best Cisco CCNP 300-135 dumps TSHOOT pdf practise questions on youtube online. Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (118 Q&As) are verified by experts.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&amp;As: 118
Duration: 120 minutes (15-25 questions)

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300-135 dumps

QUESTION NO: 38
Formal communication includes which of these options?
A. Theusers title and family name plus social discussion
B. Theusers first name, no titles plus social discussion
C. Theusers title and no social discussion
D. The users first name, social discussion and business terminology
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
During a recent training course on effective telephone skills you learnt about effective call
management. Which call management principle must you fulfil to ensure that all the calls you
receive are handled in a professional and effective manner?
A. Focus on ending the call as rapidly as possible
B. Focus on thecallers accent and attempt to speak to him/her in the same way
C. Focus on doing what is needed to provide a satisfactory resolution
D. Focus on using silent time to catch up with your emails
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 40
Which option best describes the benefits of professionally managing a call?
A. Itoptimises talk time and reduces the volume of calls handled
B. It increases the problem resolution rate and the level of customer satisfaction
C. It increases the average call duration and establishes credibility for the Service Desk
D. It increases the confidence of the SDA and the level of customer satisfaction
300-135 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
How best might you use silent time during a call?
A. By reviewing with the userwhats happened with the call so far
B. By clearly identifying whether this is a Service Desk issue
C. By asking about the users emotional state

D. By describing the detail of the behind-the-scenes support process
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of these options is the most important thing to remember to ensure that your verbal skills
are good?
A. Learn a new word every day and use it in all conversations
B. Use well structured sentences to give better explanations
C. Speak with brevity to give clear explanations
D. Speak in a manner that matches the style of the user
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
Matching the users communication style is important because
A. It increases comprehension, understanding and customer satisfaction levels
B. It increases comprehension, understanding and reduces call volumes
C. It increases comprehension, understanding and reduces call duration
D. It increases comprehension, understanding and first contact resolution
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 44
What can you do to build rapport and match a users communication approach?
A. Try using formal levels of communication
B. Avoid emotional and overly-expressive vocabulary
C. Use similar technical terms to the user
D. Avoid using technical language completely
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
Which option is NOT a type of non-verbal communication?
A. Eye contact
B. Body language
C. Facial expressions
D. Open questions
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of these options is NOT a principle of active listening?
A. Sympathising with the user
B. Minimising distractions
C. Repeating for verification
D. Listening for ideas and images
300-135 exam Answer: A

QUESTION: 47
Which of the following BEST describes partners’ in the phrase people, processes,
products and partners”?
A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors

B. Customers
C. Internal departments
D. The facilities management function
Answer: A
QUESTION: 48
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on
a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management
300-135 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of
which level of understanding within knowledge management?
A. Data
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Governance
Answer: C
QUESTION: 50
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to
enable the implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter

300-135 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 51
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT
service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 52
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and
deployment management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request
management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and
configuration management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management, request fulfillment
300-135 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 53
Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Answer: D
QUESTION: 54
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered
over those they have replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 55
Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to
maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
300-135 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a
data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 58
Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and
responsibilities in an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Incident model
C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
D. The Deming Cycle
300-135 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 59
Which process will regularly analyse incident data to identify discernible trends?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 206

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QUESTION 46
Which statement is NOT correct about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?
A. The independent variable is the reactant
B. If the reactant was 6 units, with 95 % confidence we would expect a minimum yield of 100 units
C. With at least 95% confidence, we can expect less than 10 units of Yield when the reactant is at a value
of 1
D. A reactant value between 2 and 4 units yields around 20 to 40
E. When the reactant increases, the expected yield would increase
070-413 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
When doing Hypothesis Testing on Non-normal data Belts will use a ________________ to compare more
than two sample proportions to each other.
A. Z score Table
B. Sakami Table
C. Mean-to-Mode Analysis
D. Contingency Table
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
It would be more likely than not for a Belt conducting a Regression Analysis to find that the
_______________________.
A. r2 value is smaller than the absolute value of r
B. Correlation Coefficient equals r2
C. Coefficient of Determination is less than r2
D. Correlation Coefficient equals r divided by 2
070-413 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
When a Belt properly analyzes the results of an experiment he must examine the Residuals in expectation
of finding all of the following except _________.
A. Some Residuals higher than others
B. Some Residuals lower than others
C. All Residuals within 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean
D. Residuals will represent a Linear Regression
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which statement(s) are correct about the Regression shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. The dependent variable is the outside temperature
B. The relationship between outside temperature and number of customers per hour is a Linear
Regression
C. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence where all of the process data should fall between
D. The dashed lines indicate with 95% confidence the estimate for the Quadratic Regression Line
E. The predicted number of customers per hour is close to 5 if the outside temperature is 10 deg C
070-413 pdf Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 51
Which of these might contribute to similar distributions having Unequal Variance?
A. Extreme tails

B. Outliers
C. Multiple Modes
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw
materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring
that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $4,200 in order
to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade
price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was estimated. Select the answer that best states the
Practical Problem.
A. If the average cost per component is $4,200 or less, then the purchase manager will introduce the new
product upgrade with new components.
B. If the average cost per component is greater than $4,200, then the purchase manager will introduce the
new product upgrade with new components.
C. Only if the average cost per product upgrade is $4,060, will the purchase manager introduce new
product upgrades with new components.
D. If the average cost per new product upgrade is less than $180, then the purchase manager will
introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
070-413 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw
materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring
that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $4,200 in order
to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade
price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98 was estimated. The Alternative Hypothesis in the above
example is?
A. The Standard Deviation is equal to $300.
B. The Mean is less than $4,320.
C. The Mean is equal to $4,060.
D. The Mean is less than $4,200.
E. The Mean is greater than $ 4,200.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of critical raw
materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring
that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less than or equal to $3,600 in order
to stay within budget. Using a sample of 42 first article components, a Mean of the new product upgrade
price of $3,200 and a Standard Deviation of $180 was estimated. Based on the data provided, the Z value
for the data assuming a Normal Distribution is?
A. 1.11
B. 2.22
C. 4.30
D. 5.42
070-413 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
Which is the required plugin to develop Android with Eclipse?
A. ADT
B. AJDT
C. CDT
D. RDT
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Which is the tool that creates certificates for signing an application?
A. adb
B. etc 1 tool
C. fastboot
D. keytool
070-413 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which manifest file permission is necessary to read data from the standard installed address
book?
A. READ_ADDRESS_DATA
B. READ_PHONE_STATE
C. READ_OWNER_DATA
D. READ CONTACTS
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which component cannot receive an Intent?
A. Service
B. Activity
C. ContentProvider
D. BroadcastReceiver
070-413 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Which function is not supported by the “android” command?
A. The SDK Update function
B. Functions to create and edit an Android Virtual Device (AVD)
C. Startup function for Android SDK and the AVD Manager tool
D. Functions to create and delete an Android project
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which is the permission added to the Android manifest file in order to access GPS?
A. ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION
B. ACCESS_COARSE_LOCATION
C. ACCESS_CHECKIN_PROPERTIES
D. ACCESS MOCK LOCATION
070-413 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
Which of these is the correct precaution when publishing an application update to the Android
Market?
A. The package name must be the same, but the .apk may be signed with a different private key.
B. The package name does not have to be the same and the .apk can be signed with a different
private key.

C. The package name must be the same and the .apk must be signed with the same private key.
D. The package name does not have to be the same, but the .apk must be signed with the same
private key.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of these is the correct way to configure access permissions?
A. Add a <uses-permission> tag as a child tag of the <manifest> tag in AndroidManifest.xml.
B. Add a <permission> tag as a child tag of the <manifest> tag in AndroidManifest.xml.
C. Add a <uses-permission> tag as a child tag of the <application> tag in AndroidManifest.xml.
D. Add a <permission> tag as a child tag of the <application> tag in AndroidManifest.xml.
070-413 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which of these is the incorrect explanation of the adb command?
A. The “adb start-server” command starts the adb server.
B. The “adb devices” command lists connected handsets and emulators.
C. You can copy a file to the target with the “adb copy” command.
D. You install an apk with the “adb install” command.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Which does not have a lifecycle?
A. Service
B. MediaPlayer
C. ContentProvider
D. Activity
070-413  dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of these is the correct explanation of SQLite?
A. It is an object database.
B. It is client-server format.
C. It is possible to create and access a database by using SQLOpenHelper.
D. It can be accessed by other applications through ContentProvider.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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