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[2018-May-Version] Best Cisco 210-250 Dumps PDF Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals Exam Video Study Online Q1-Q19

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Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format

1.0 Network Concepts 12%

  • 1.1 Describe the function of the network layers as specified by the OSI and the TCP/IP network models
  • 1.2 Describe the operation of the following
  • 1.3 Describe the operation of these network services
  • 1.4 Describe the basic operation of these network device types
  • 1.5 Describe the functions of these network security systems as deployed on the host, network, or the cloud
  • 1.6 Describe IP subnets and communication within an IP subnet and between IP subnets
  • 1.7 Describe the relationship between VLANs and data visibility
  • 1.8 Describe the operation of ACLs applied as packet filters on the interfaces of network devices
  • 1.9 Compare and contrast deep packet inspection with packet filtering and stateful firewall operation
  • 1.10 Compare and contrast inline traffic interrogation and taps or traffic mirroring
  • 1.11 Compare and contrast the characteristics of data obtained from taps or traffic mirroring and NetFlow in the analysis of network traffic
  • 1.12 Identify potential data loss from provided traffic profiles

2.0 Security Concepts 17%

  • 2.1 Describe the principles of the defense in depth strategy
  • 2.2 Compare and contrast these concepts
  • 2.3 Describe these terms
  • 2.4 Describe these security terms
  • 2.5 Compare and contrast these access control models
  • 2.6 Compare and contrast these terms
  • 2.7 Describe these concepts

3.0 Cryptography 12%

  • 3.1 Describe the uses of a hash algorithm
  • 3.2 Describe the uses of encryption algorithms
  • 3.3 Compare and contrast symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms
  • 3.4 Describe the processes of digital signature creation and verification
  • 3.5 Describe the operation of a PKI
  • 3.6 Describe the security impact of these commonly used hash algorithms
  • 3.7 Describe the security impact of these commonly used encryption algorithms and secure communications protocols
  • 3.8 Describe how the success or failure of a cryptographic exchange impacts security investigation
  • 3.9 Describe these items in regards to SSL/TLS

4.0 Host-Based Analysis 19%

  • 4.1 Define these terms as they pertain to Microsoft Windows
  • 4.2 Define these terms as they pertain to Linux
  • 4.3 Describe the functionality of these endpoint technologies in regards to security monitoring
  • 4.4 Interpret these operating system log data to identify an event

5.0 Security Monitoring 19%

  • 5.1 Identify the types of data provided by these technologies
  • 5.2 Describe these types of data used in security monitoring
  • 5.3 Describe these concepts as they relate to security monitoring
  • 5.4 Describe these NextGen IPS event types
  • 5.5 Describe the function of these protocols in the context of security monitoring

6.0 Attack Methods 21%

  • 6.1 Compare and contrast an attack surface and vulnerability
  • 6.2 Describe these network attacks
  • 6.3 Describe these web application attacks
  • 6.4 Describe these attacks
  • 6.5 Describe these endpoint-based attacks
  • 6.6 Describe these evasion methods
  • 6.7 Define privilege escalation
  • 6.8 Compare and contrast remote exploit and a local exploit

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
210-250 exam Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 2
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service
B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA
C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC
D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
210-250 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which definition of a daemon on Linux is true?
A. error check right after the call to fork a process
B. new process created by duplicating the calling process
C. program that runs unobtrusively in the background
D. set of basic CPU instructions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads. Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources
B. failure of full packet capture solution
C. misconfiguration of web filter
D. TCP injection
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?
A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats
B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering
C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device
D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which information security property is supported by encryption?
A. sustainability
B. integrity
C. confidentiality
D. availability
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which term describes the act of a user, without authority or permission, obtaining rights on a system, beyond what were assigned?
A. authentication tunneling
B. administrative abuse
C. rights exploitation
D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which definition of the IIS Log Parser tool is true?
A. a logging module for IIS that allows you to log to a database
B. a data source control to connect to your data source
C. a powerful, versatile tool that makes it possible to run SQL-like queries against log flies
D. a powerful versatile tool that verifies the integrity of the log files
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backoff time.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
210-250 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization?
A. When moving to a different role
B. Upon termination of the employment
C. As described in the asset return policy
D. When the laptop is end of lease
210-250 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event
B. endpoint event
C. NetFlow event
D. intrusion event
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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  • Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals (SECFND) v1.0
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  • Designing and Implementing Web Services (15-20%)
  • Deploying Web Applications and Services (15-20%)

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QUESTION 1
You are building an ADO.NET Entity Framework application. You need to validate the conceptual schema definition language (CSDL), store schema definition language (SSDL), and mapping specification language (MSL) files. Which Entity Data Model tool can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. EDM Generator (EdmGen.exe)
B. ADO.NET Entity Data Model Designer
C. Entity Data Model Wizard
D. Update Model Wizard
070-487 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment. Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that contains the following HTML. You also have an ASP.NET Web API application that contains a call for retrieving customers. You must send and retrieve the data in the most compact format possible. You need to update the HTML for the customers table to contain data from the Web API application.
Which script segment should you use?
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070-487 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5.
You do not have access to SSH or a VPN.
You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites.
Which tool should you use?
A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Applications can be deployed to remote servers only by administrators who have elevated privileges. The administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2012. You need to select a deployment tool to deploy the application to remote servers for testing. Which tool should you use?
A. Copy Web Site Tool
B. One-Click Publish
C. Publish Web Site Tool
D. Web Deployment Package
070-487  pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.
The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

QUESTION 7
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production. The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate. You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement. What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
070-487  vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are developing a library to support multiple ASP.NET MVC web applications on a shared server. The library provides implementations of security algorithms. If a problem with any of the security algorithms is discovered, a new version of the library must be created and deployed. Application downtime during the update must be minimized. You need to ensure that the new version of the library will be used by all applications as soon as possible. What should you do?
A. Build the web applications and include the security assembly as an embedded resource. When an update is needed, copy the new assembly to the bin directory for the application.
B. Sign all assemblies in each application with the same key used to sign the security assembly. When an update is needed, create a new key pair and re-sign all assemblies.
C. Build the security assembly as a netmodule in a shared location. Use the assembly linker to merge the netmodule into the assemblies for the application. When an update is needed, update the netmodule in the shared location.
D. Install the security assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC). When an update is needed, update the assembly in the GAC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results. The URI for the API call is in a variable named address.
You need to make the API call without blocking. Which code segment should you use?
070-487 dumps
070-487 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application has a page that updates an image stored in a database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access an ADO.NET Entity Framework data model. Images and
associated metadata are stored in a single database table. You need to run a single query that updates an image and associated metadata in the database while returning only the number of affected rows. Which method of the EntityCommand type should you use?
A. ExecuteNonQuery()
B. ExecutcScalar()
C. ExecuteDbDataReader()
D. ExecuteReader()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are developing a new ASP.NET MVC application that does not have an existing database. The requirements for the application are not complete, and the SQL data model will likely change. You need to choose an approach to visually manage a data model. Which approach should you use?
A. Physical First
B. Database First
C. Code First
D. Model First
070-487  dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to modify the text of a comment. Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. DELETE
C. POST
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets. The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use. What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
070-487 pdf Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions. Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is an order processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays customers. Customers are filtered on Country and, if provided, on CompanyName. You have an Entity Framework context named db. The Customer class is shown below.
070-487 dumps
You need to execute a single deferred query to return the filtered list of customers. Which code segment should you use?
070-487 dumps
070-487 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is a loan processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays all loans along with rate information. Lazy loading has been disabled. The Loan class is shown below.
070-487 dumps
You need to return the loans and rate information in a single round trip to the database. Which code segment should you use?
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Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You have a website that displays text, pictures, video files, and audio files. The website processes requests from countries and regions all over the world. You plan to migrate the website to the Azure platform. The website has the following requirements:
Encode, store, and stream audio and video at scale.
Load-balance communications with the website instance that is closest to the user’s location.
Deliver content with high-bandwidth and low latency.
You need to recommend the technologies to implement the solution. Which technologies should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate technology to the correct requirement. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
70-534 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* MediaServices
Azure Media Services is being used to power consumer and enterprise streaming solutions worldwide. Combining powerful and highly scalable cloud-based encoding, encryption and steaming components, Azure Media Services is helping customers with valuable and premium video content to easily reach larger audiences on today’s most popular digital devices, such as tablets and mobile phones.
* TrafficManager
* Azure Content Delivery Network
The Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) is designed to send audio, video, applications,images, and other files faster and more reliably to customers using servers that are closest to each user. This dramatically increases speed and availability, resulting in significant user experience improvements.

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You plan to implement a predictive analytics solution in Azure Machine Learning Studio (ML Studio). You intend to train the solution by using existing data that resides onpremises. The on-premises data is a collection of determined text files that total 5 GB in size. You need to identify the process of adding the existing data to the solution. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You need to implement resource security and authentication. For each requirement, which solution should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate solution to the correct requirement. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application that will send push notifications to registered devices. You perform the following actions:
You need to debug push notifications by sending test notifications to registered devices in a controlled way. For each action, which tool should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct action. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Contoso, Ltd., uses Azure websites for their company portal sites. Admin users need enough access to effectively perform site monitoring or management tasks. Management tasks do not include assigning permissions to other users. You need to grant admin access to a group of 10 users. How should you configure the connection? To answer, drag the role or object to the correct connection setting. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy four Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) virtual machines in Azure. All IaaS virtual machines will reside on the same IP subnet. You need to design an Azure virtual network that can accommodate the deployment. The design must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the size of the IP subnet.
Provide the ability to restrict both internal and Internet traffic.
Ensure that the IP addresses of the virtual machines remain the same.
What should you include in the design? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Not /29.
/29 would normally provide up to 8 IP addresses which should be enough for four VMs. However, Azure reserves five IP addresses so for four VMs, you need a subnet with at least 9 IP addresses.

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:
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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Owner can manage everything, including access.
* Contributors can manage everything except access.
Note: Azure role-based access control allows you to grant appropriate access to Azure AD users, groups, and services, by assigning roles to them on a subscription or resource group or individual resource level.

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You are migrating Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains to Azure. You need to recommend the least complex directory synchronization solution. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate solution to the correct client requirement. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API that you will host by using the Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) libraries. The API is used by an ASP.NET MVC Web App that is hosted in Azure. You need to secure the API by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) B2C. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You manage a large number of on-premises applications. You plan to migrate the applications to Azure. You need to implement Azure Storage for each type of data that the applications use. For each type of data, which storage mechanism should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate storage mechanism to the correct type of data. Each storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are designing the deployment for Linux virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. The VMs will be used for a web app that will run in Azure. The web app must be able to run Bash scripts on demand. Parallel workloads must also be set to scale automatically based on use. You need to design the environment for the Bash scripts and parallel workloads. Which processing type should you use for each component? To answer, drag the appropriate processing types to the correct components. Each processing type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split
bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
A company has 10 on-premises SQL databases. The company plans to move the databases to SQL Server 2012 that runs in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). After migration, the databases will support a limited number of Azure websites in the same Azure Virtual Network. You have the following requirements:
* You must restore copies of existing on-premises SQL databases to the SQL servers that run in Azure IaaS.
* You must be able to manage the SQL databases remotely.
* You must not open a direct connection from all of the machines on the on-premises network to Azure.
* Connections to the databases must originate from only five Windows computers.
You need to configure remote connectivity to the databases. Which technology solution should you implement?
A. Azure Virtual Network site-to-site VPN
B. Azure Virtual Network multi-point VPN
C. Azure Virtual Network point-to-site VPN
D. Azure ExpressRoute
70-534 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Online training

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Pass4itsure Cisco 210-060 Dumps Free Demo Download(34-61)

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool. Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports

D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat?
A. Personal

B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
210-060 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
_______ is one of the programs used to wardial.
A. DialIT
B. Netstumbler
C. TooPac
D. Kismet
E. ToneLoc
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ToneLoc is one of the programs used to wardial. While this is considered an “old school” technique, it is still effective at finding backdoors and out of band network entry points.

QUESTION 42
What are the default passwords used by SNMP?(Choose two.)
A. Password
B. SA
C. Private
D. Administrator
E. Public
F. Blank
210-060 exam 
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Besides the fact that it passes information in clear text, SNMP also uses well-known passwords. Public and private are the default passwords used by SNMP.

QUESTION 43
Which of the following ICMP message types are used for destinations unreachables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 11
D. 13
E. 17
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Type 3 messages are used for unreachable messages. 0 is Echo Reply, 8 is Echo request, 11 is time exceeded, 13 is timestamp and 17 is subnet mask request. Learning these would be advisable for the test.

QUESTION 44
What is the proper response for a FIN scan if the port is closed?
A. SYN

B. ACK
C. FIN
D. PSH
E. RST
210-060 dumps 
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Closed ports respond to a FIN scan with a RST.

QUESTION 45
What is the proper response for a FIN scan if the port is open?
A. SYN
B. ACK
C. FIN
D. PSH
E. RST
F. No response
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Open ports respond to a FIN scan by ignoring the packet in question.

QUESTION 46
What is the proper response for a X-MAS scan if the port is closed?
A. SYN
B. ACK
C. FIN
D. PSH
E. RST
F. No response
210-060 pdf 
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Closed ports respond to a X-MAS scan with a RST.

QUESTION 47
What is the proper response for a X-MAS scan if the port is open?
A. SYN
B. ACK
C. FIN
D. PSH
E. RST
F. No response
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Closed ports respond to a X-MAS scan by ignoring the packet.

QUESTION 48
What flags are set in a X-MAS scan?(Choose all that apply.
A. SYN
B. ACK
C. FIN
D. PSH
E. RST
F. URG
210-060 vce 
Correct Answer: CDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FIN, URG, and PSH are set high in the TCP packet for a X-MAS scan

QUESTION 49
Which of the following is an automated vulnerability assessment tool.
A. Whack a Mole
B. Nmap
C. Nessus

D. Kismet
E. Jill32
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nessus is a vulnerability assessment tool.

QUESTION 50
John is using a special tool on his Linux platform that has a signature database and is therefore able to detect hundred of vulnerabilities in UNIX, Windows, and commonly-used web CGI scripts. Additionally, the database detects DDoS zombies and Trojans. What would be the name of this multifunctional tool?
A. nmap
B. hping
C. nessus
D. make
210-060 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nessus is the world’s most popular vulnerability scanner, estimated to be used by over 75,000 organizations world-wide. Nmap is mostly used for scanning, not for detecting vulnerabilities. Hping is a free packet generator and analyzer for the TCP/IP protocol and make is used to automatically build large applications on the nix plattform.

QUESTION 51
________ is an automated vulnerability assessment tool.
A. Whack a Mole
B. Nmap
C. Nessus
D. Kismet
E. Jill32
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nessus is a vulnerability assessment tool.

QUESTION 52
What is the disadvantage of an automated vulnerability assessment tool?
A. Ineffective
B. Slow
C. Prone to false positives
D. Prone to false negatives
E. Noisy
210-060 dumps 
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Vulnerability assessment tools perform a good analysis of system vulnerabilities; however, they are noisy and will quickly trip IDS systems.

QUESTION 53
What are two things that are possible when scanning UDP ports? (Choose two.
A. A reset will be returned
B. An ICMP message will be returned
C. The four-way handshake will not be completed
D. An RFC 1294 message will be returned
E. Nothing
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Closed UDP ports can return an ICMP type 3 code 3 message. No response can mean the port is open or the packet was silently dropped.

QUESTION 54
Which of the following ICMP message types are used for destinations unreachables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 11
D. 13
E. 17
210-060 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Type 3 messages are used for unreachable messages. 0 is Echo Reply, 8 is Echo request, 11 is time exceeded, 13 is timestamp and 17 is subnet mask request. Learning these would be advisable for the test.

QUESTION 55
What does a type 3 code 13 represent?(Choose two.
A. Echo request
B. Destination unreachable
C. Network unreachable
D. Administratively prohibited
E. Port unreachable
F. Time exceeded
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Type 3 code 13 is destination unreachable administratively prohibited. This type of message is typically returned from a device blocking a port.

QUESTION 56
Destination unreachable administratively prohibited messages can inform the hacker to what?
A. That a circuit level proxy has been installed and is filtering traffic
B. That his/her scans are being blocked by a honeypot or jail
C. That the packets are being malformed by the scanning software
D. That a router or other packet-filtering device is blocking traffic
E. That the network is functioning normally
210-060 vce 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Destination unreachable administratively prohibited messages are a good way to discover that a router or other low-level packet device is filtering traffic. Analysis of the ICMP message will reveal the IP address of the blocking device and the filtered port. This further adds the to the network map and information being discovered about the network and hosts.

QUESTION 57
Which of the following Nmap commands would be used to perform a stack fingerprinting?
A. Nmap -O -p80 <host(s.>
B. Nmap -hU -Q<host(s.>
C. Nmap -sT -p <host(s.>
D. Nmap -u -o -w2 <host>
E. Nmap -sS -0p target
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This option activates remote host identification via TCP/IP fingerprinting. In other words, it uses a bunch of techniques to detect subtlety in the underlying operating system network stack of the computers you are scanning. It uses this information to create a “fingerprint” which it compares with its database of known OS fingerprints (the nmap-os-fingerprints file. to decide what type of system you are scanning.

QUESTION 58
(Note: the student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why would you find this abnormal? What is odd about this attack? Choose the best answer.
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes form port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carries connection that is not normally valid.
D. These packets were crafted by a tool, they were not created by a standard IP stack.
210-060 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Port 31337 is normally used by Back Orifice. Note that 31337 is hackers spelling of `elite’, meaning `elite hackers’.

QUESTION 59
Which type of Nmap scan is the most reliable, but also the most visible, and likely to be picked up by and IDS?
A. SYN scan
B. ACK scan
C. RST scan
D. Connect scan
E. FIN scan
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The TCP full connect (-sT) scan is the most reliable.

QUESTION 60
Name two software tools used for OS guessing.(Choose two.
A. Nmap
B. Snadboy
C. Queso
D. UserInfo
E. NetBus
210-060 dumps 
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nmap and Queso are the two best-known OS guessing programs. OS guessing software has the ability to look at peculiarities in the way that each vendor implements the RFC’s. These differences are compared with its database of known OS fingerprints. Then a best guess of the OS is provided to the user.

QUESTION 61
Sandra is the security administrator of ABC.com. One day she notices that the ABC.com Oracle database server has been compromised and customer information along with financial data has been stolen. The financial loss will be estimated in millions of dollars if the database gets into the hands of competitors. Sandra wants to report this crime to the law enforcement agencies immediately. Which organization coordinates computer crime investigations throughout the United States?
A. NDCA
B. NICP
C. CIRP
D. NPC
E. CIA
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 7
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution receives invoices in XML format. The solution receives only two types of files: XML files that contain only a single invoice. The filename of these files starts with the letter S.XML files that contain multiple invoices. The filename of these files starts with the letter M. You create a receive port with two FILE receive locations. Both receive locations point to the same folder on the file system but each receive location has a different file mask. You configure each receive location to pick up one type of invoice XML. You need to ensure that the single-invoice XML files are processed as soon as possible, and the multiple-invoice XML files are only processed outside of office hours. What should you do?
A. In the receive port, delete one of the receive locations. Configure the other receive location to pick up both types of files. Set the service window to reflect the outside office hour time range.
B. Set the service window of the receive location that picks up the multiple-invoice XML files to reflect the outside office hour time range. Enable both receive locations.
C. Set the schedule start date and stop date of the receive location that picks up the multiple- invoice XML files to reflect the outside office hour time range.
D. Set the service window of the receive location that picks up the multiple-invoice XML files to reflect the outside office hour time range. Make sure this receive location is disabled.
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A BizTalk Server 2010 application is designed to receive a file from a customer. The customer periodically updates the file on an FTP site. The file has a name that never changes. You have been given read-only permissions to the site. You need to create a receive location that detects when the file has been updated and then retrieves it. You use the BizTalk Administration console to create a receive port. What should you do next?
A. Create an FTP receive location with the site and credential information. In the FTP adapter properties, set the Delete After Download property to Yes and set the Enable Timestamp Comparison property to Yes.
B. Create an FTP receive location and set the Target File Name property to *.*.
C. Create an FTP receive location with the site and credential information. In the FTP adapter properties, set the Delete After Download property to No and set the Enable Timestamp Comparison property to Yes.
D. Create an FTP receive location and set the Mode property to Passive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing a solution for BizTalk Server 2010. You deploy the solution to the runtime environment. The solution includes one orchestration with a direct bound send port that sends a message to the BizTalk MessageBox database for routing to a folder. After starting the BizTalk application for testing, you notice that the following error is logged in the servers event log: The published message could not be routed because no subscribers were found. This error occurs if the subscribing orchestration or send port has not been enlisted, or if some of the message properties necessary for subscription
evaluation have not been promoted. Please use the BizTalk Administration console to troubleshoot this failure. You need to resolve the error without changing the code in the orchestration and without redeploying the solution. What should you do?
A. Add a send port that uses the XmlTransmit pipeline.
B. Add a send port that has a filter that matches the message type.
C. Add a receive port that uses the XmlReceive pipeline.
D. Add a dynamic send port.
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A company uses BizTalk Server 2010 to receive electronic orders from multiple customers. You have schemas for all the order formats that the customers send. You need to create a business process that handles an incoming order. You create a canonical schema that represents an order. You also create an orchestration that handles an order of the canonical schema. What should you do next?
A. Create maps from each of the customer order formats to the canonical schema. Create a receive port and location and bind the port to the orchestration. Use the maps on the receive port.
B. Create maps from each of the customer order formats to the canonical schema. Create a send port and bind it to the orchestration. Use the maps on the send port.
C. Create maps from the canonical schema to each of the customer order formats. Create a send port and bind it to the orchestration. Use the maps on the send port.
D. Create maps from the canonical schema to each of the customer order formats. Create a receive port and location and bind the port to the orchestration. Use the maps on the receive port.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution sends out XML invoices to a customer on a regular basis. The customer has sent you the public key part of their certificate. You installed this certificate on the server and set up a send port to use this certificate. The certification authority for the certificate is one that you already trust. You need to ensure that all invoices sent to the customer are encrypted using the provided public key. What should you do?
A. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Enable encryption property of the component to True.
B. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Add signing certification to message property of the component to True.
C. Create a custom pipeline that uses the MIME/SMIME encoder component. Set the Content transfer encoding property of the component to Base64.
D. Create a custom pipeline that uses the default XML assembler component. Use the default values for all properties of the component.
70-595 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An existing BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution for processing orders has a send port group that contains two send ports. Send Port A is for Supplier A and Send Port B is for Supplier B. Each supplier receives only one copy of each order message. The order schema has a promoted property named OrderAmount that contains the total amount of the order. The send port group subscribes to all messages where a promoted property OrderAmount exists. The send ports do not have a filter defined. Messages with an order amount less than or equal to 1000 must be sent to Supplier A. Messages with an order amount greater than 1000 must be sent to Supplier B. Only a single message can be sent to either Supplier A or Supplier B. You need to modify the solution to route each order message to either Supplier A or Supplier B. What should you do?
A. Delete the existing filter condition on the send port group. Add a filter condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Add a filter OR condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000.
B. Keep the existing filter condition on the send port group. Add a filter condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Add a filter OR condition on the send port group to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > than 1000.
C. Set a filter on Send Port A to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Set a filter on Send Port B to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000. Stop and start the send port group.
D. Set a filter on Send Port A to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is <= 1000. Set a filter on Send Port B to subscribe for messages where OrderAmount is > 1000. Delete the send port group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are developing applications for BizTalk Server 2010. The application processes orders for two vendors. These vendors have different message formats for their orders. You define BizTalk schemas for both vendors in separate projects and name the projects VendorA and VendorB. You promote the OrderType property in the schema of VendorA and the PurchaseType property in the schema of VendorB. Then you deploy the application. You need to log messages to disk for shoe orders for VendorA and bike orders for VendorB. What should you do?
A. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
B. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
C. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
D. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
70-595 vce 
Correct Answer: B

Question No : 14  Which of the following statements is most accurate about PRPC portals? (Choose One)
A. PRPC provides standard Case Manager and Case Worker portals, which can be customized
B. PRPC provides standard portals only for Case Managers
C. PRPC does not provide standard portals for Case Management
D. PRPC provides standard Case Manager and Case Worker portals , which cannot be
customized
Answer: A

Question No : 15 Which of the following cannot be used as a direct source for Repeating Grids? (Choose One)
A. Page lists
B. Page Groups
C. Report Definition
D. Data Table
70-595 exam 
Answer: D

Question No : 16 Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding Smart Layouts? (Choose One)
A. Smart Layouts are useful in aligning the UI fields
B. Smart Layout widths can be changed in the branding wizard
C. Smart Layout widths can be changed in a section rule
D. Smart Layouts can be converted to free form layouts
Answer: C

Question No : 17  Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding sections? (Choose One)
A. A harness requires at least one section
B. A flow action can reference only one section in its layout
C. A layout can be converted into a section
D. When including a section, it must be in the same class as its container
70-595 dumps 
Answer: D

Question No : 18 Where does the label “Create Quick Correspondence” come from? (Choose One)
A. Set on the Assignment shape on the flow
B. Set by the short description of the flow action
C. Set by the usage on the history tab of the flow action
D. Is the name of the flow action rule
Answer: B

Question No : 19
A. The flow action with no privileges listed
B. The flow action with 1 privilege listed
C. The flow action with 2 privileges listed
D. All three flow actions will be available to the same number of users.
70-595 pdf 
Answer: A


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200-355 dumps

QUESTION 7
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to connect to the GUI of a WLC with interfaces as shown. Which IP address should the network administrator use?
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.3.2
E. 192.168.4.2

200-355 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What suite of algorithms results in slower connection rates when using 802.11N technology?
A. WPA2
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. AES
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.

B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

QUESTION 14 You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 15  What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
200-355 exam Answer: BCE
QUESTION 16 What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C
QUESTION 17  Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh

C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
200-355 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19  When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
200-355 pdf Answer: BC
QUESTION 20 When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 21 A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays. Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays

B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
200-355 vce Answer: CD
QUESTION 22  A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C
QUESTION 23  A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6 hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape library with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do to successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
200-355 exam Answer: AC

QUESTION NO: 24
When deciding on the network bandwidth needed to connect front ends to an SAP system (using a
WAN connection), you should consider which of the following? (Choose three.)
A. The number of users connecting using this line.
B. Using SAP’s advanced online data compression technology (SAP ODCT) to minimize the network load. The software needed for this feature is sold separately.
C. The volume of “non-SAP-related” traffic (for example, office documents) using the same connection.
D. It might be useful to switch on the “Low speed connection” flag for the remote connections.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 25
SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information provided by the SLD.
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system from which help is being called.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the ‘System change option’ in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two.)
A. Modifiable
B. Repaired objects modifiable
C. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
D. Original objects modifiable
E. Not modifiable
200-355 pdf Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 28
Regarding the architecture of the SAP NetWeaver AS, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Central Services Instance of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java is only needed in a pure SAP NetWeaver AS Java (without SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP) installation.
B. The Java work processes are controlled by a dispatcher.
C. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP can communicate with each other.
D. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP use different database schemas.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of following is true for an SAP system with an Oracle database? ORACLE_HOME is …
A. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
B. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
C. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
D. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following statements is correct regarding online Oracle database backups?
A. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
B. The database does not write to online redo log files during online backups.
C. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
D. A complete online backup consists of tablespace data files and the control file, all of which are necessary for restoring the database to a consistent state.
E. Users may only read data and may not enter data while the backup is running.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command “its -mem”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are  true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true? (Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
200-355 pdf Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 34
In the MOUNT mode of an Oracle instance, the administrator can do which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.
B. Perform a media recovery.
C. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
D. Recreate the missing control file.
Answer: A,B

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QUESTION 1
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
100-105 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.
QUESTION 3
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation/Reference:
If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the dire
QUESTION 4
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
100-105 dumps

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA th
QUESTION 5
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the topology and partial configurations shown in the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network administrator has finished configuring the NewYork and Sydney routers and issues the command ping
Sydney from the NewYork router. The ping fails. What command or set of commands should the network administrator
issue to correct this problem?
A. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#cdp enable
B. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# no shut
C. Sydney(config)# line vty 0 4 Sydney(config)# login Sydney(config)# password Sydney
D. Sydney(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.9
E. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#ip address 10.1.1.5 255.255.255.252 NewYork(config)# ip host
Sydney 10.1.1.5
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The IP addresses on the two Serial interfaces of two routers are not in the same subnet so they could not recognize each other and the ping failed. Therefore we must correct the IP addr
QUESTION 7
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash

F. Router# show processes
100-105 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see
what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.
QUESTION 8
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two
processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during t
QUESTION 9
Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet.
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been
correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will
then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128,
and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of
the lack of a gateway on R1.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the
administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three
QUESTION 11
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30

E. 192.169.42.34
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

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Question No : 1 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields: An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example, [email protected]) A nine-digit number that allows optional hyphens after the second and fifth character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55-5555) You need to use the correct expression to validate the input. Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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070-480 dumps

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” /> A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form. You need to add validation to the control. Which code segment should you use?
070-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-480 exam Answer: D
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and jQuery. The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address. You need to implement this functionality. How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an application that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service. The application interacts with the service by using the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-480 dumps

You need to authenticate to the WCF service. What should you do?
A. At line 11, add the following lines of code,username: yourusername,password: yourpassword
B. At line 11, add the following line of code,credentials: prompt
C. At line 06, replace the code with the following line of code.Username=username&password=psssword”,
D. At line 11, add the following line of code. The username and password will be stored in an XML file,credentials: credentials.xml
070-480 dumps Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server. The page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

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An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the page. You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML. <label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web service returns the
following JSON object.
{
“Confirmation”: “1234”,
“FirstName”: “John”
}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val (JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text (JSONObject.Confirmation);
070-480 pdf Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 8 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are developing a web application that retrieves data from a web service. The data
being retrieved is a custom binary datatype named bint. The data can also be represented in XML. Two existing methods named parseXml() and parseBint() are defined on the page.
The application must:
Retrieve and parse data from the web service using binary format if possible Retrieve and parse the data from the web service using XML when binary format is not possible  You need to develop the application to meet the requirements.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

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Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML. <input id = “txtValue” />
A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form. You need to add validation to the text box control.
Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
070-480 vce Answer: A
Reference:
Question No : 10 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are developing a web page for runners who register for a race. The page includes a slider control that allows users to enter their age.
You have the following requirements:
All runners must enter their age. Applications must not be accepted from runners less than 18 years of age or greater than 90 years. The slider control must be set to the average age (37) of all registered runners when the page is first displayed. You need to ensure that the slider control meets the requirements. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate word or number to the correct location in the answer area. Each word or number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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QUESTION 20
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some
configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff. This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for administrative intervention.
QUESTION 21
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values. 
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template. The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs. The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing
overflow is sent to the CPU which can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.
QUESTION 22
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination. Reference:
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the other is passive. The table below sum- marizes the results for LACP channel establishment based on the configuration of each side of a link: LACP Channel Establishment S1 S2 Established?
On On Yes
Active/Passive Active Yes
On/Active/Passive Not Configured No
On Active No
Passive/On Passive No
Load balancing can only be configured globally. As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing. This is true for the switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have non matching parameters for load balancing.
QUESTION 24
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After you configure an EtherChannel, any configuration that you apply to the port-channel interface affects the EtherChannel; any configuration that you apply to the physical interfaces affects only the interface where you apply the configuration. Storm Control is an exception to this rule. For example, you cannot configure Storm Control on some of the members of an EtherChannel; Storm Control must be configured on all or none of the ports. If you configure Storm Control on only some of the ports, those ports will be dropped from the EtherChannel interface (put in suspended state). Therefore, you should configure Storm Control at the EtherChannel Interface level, and not at the physical interface level. Reference: 

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 35
Which method could you use to create a new formula in your report?
A. Right-click on the Formula Fields category in the Report Explorer and choose the New option.
B. Select the New Formula option from the Insert menu.
C. Select the New Formula option from the Format menu.
D. Right-click on the Formula Fields category in the Field Explorer and choose the New option.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 36
Which method can you use to display a field when specific criteria are met?
A. Conditionally format the field in the Field Editor.
B. Conditionally format the field in the Section Expert.
C. Conditionally format the field in the Select Expert.
D. Conditionally format the field in the Format Editor.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
How can you modify a report to display the word “low” when the field value is 0 – 4, and the word “high” when the field value is 5 – 9?
A. Create a new conditional suppression formula.
B. Use the Select Expert.
C. Create a new conditional display string formula.
D. Use the Highlighting Expert.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 38
Which two options can you select in the Group Expert? (Choose two.)
A. Bottom N
B. In specified order
C. In original order
D. Top N
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 39
Which two formulas will determine the number of elements in an array? (Choose two.)
A. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Count(simpleArray);
B. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Value(simpleArray);
C. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; UBound(simpleArray);
D. Global NumberVar Array simpleArray; Number(simpleArray);
210-260 pdf Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 40
Which formula returns the sum of Last Year’s Sales by Country?
A. sum(Customer.Last Year’s Sales,{Customer.Country})
B. sum({Customer.Last Year’s Sales}{Customer.Country})
C. sum({Customer.Last Year’s Sales},{Customer.Country})
D. sum({Customer.Country},{Customer.Last Year’s Sales})
Answer: C
QUESTION: 41
What type of data does Crystal Reports 2008 store when exporting to XML?
A. Static
B. Ad-hoc
C. Dynamic
D. On-Demand
210-260 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
You must change the logo used in your Crystal reports on a regular basis. Your company owns a license for Crystal Reports but does not own a license for BusinessObjects Enterprise. Which option can you use to easily change the logo?
A. Add to the Repository
B. Dynamic Graphic Location
C. Dynamic Prompt Parameter
D. Convert Picture Object
Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which option will you choose from the Group Select Expert to display the countries that generate the least orders?
A. Top N
B. Descending
C. No Sort
D. Bottom N
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 44
You are designing a Crystal report that contains a Gantt chart designed to assist in project management. Which fields must you select to create this chart?

A. One “For Each Record” field and one date field under “Show values”
B. Two “For Each Record” fields and one date field under “Show values”
C. Two “For Each Record” fields and two date fields under “Show values”
D. One “For Each Record” field and two date fields under “Show values”
Answer: D
QUESTION: 45
You want to add a drillable Xcelsius chart to a report. Which method must you use?
A. Send the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart via formula fields.
B. Map the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart in the Formula Editor.
C. Send the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart via shared variables.
D. Map the Crystal report fields to the Xcelsius chart in the Flash Data Binding Expert.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 46
What is the reason you are unable to edit a report that was created against an ODBC data source?
A. The report field is not dynamic.
B. You did not authenticate to the data source.
C. The ODBC data source is too large for the report.
D. You set the report to read-only.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
You want to use conditional formatting to link a dynamic image object, corporate_logo.jpg, to a Crystal report. Which format should you use for referencing the location of the graphic image?
A. [C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg]
B. “C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg”
C. C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg
D. {C:\Images\corporate_logo.jpg}

210-260 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
You create a report showing annual sales grouped by customer name but want to display results for customers in North America only. Which two techniques can you use to achieve this result? (Choose two.)
A. A drill-down group
B. The record selection formula
C. A cross-tab
D. The group selection formula
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 49
Which three units of measure can you use to define the page size? (Choose three.)
A. Inch
B. Twip
C. Pixel
D. Centimeter
210-260 vce Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 50
What is the default file version when you save a report to crystalreports.com?
A. Crystal Reports 9
B. Crystal Reports XI
C. Crystal Reports 4.5
D. Crystal Reports 2008
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51
You have made a decision to use an existing report as the corporate template. You have beenasked to create a sales report. Which two report objects will the template apply to the new report?
A. Detail Charts
B. Group Charts
C. Cross-tabs
D. Summary Fields
210-260 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 52
Which two export options can you use to display the correct Page N of M values in an exported file? (Choose two.)
A. Report Definition
B. Rich Text Format
C. Acrobat Format (PDF)
D. XML
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 53
What would cause Crystal Reports to refresh the report data?
A. Deleting an existing field
B. Adding a previously unused field to the report
C. Repositioning an existing field
D. Creating a calculation with two existing fields
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 54
Crystal Reports developers can extend the functionality of Crystal Reports by using add ins in the Report Designer. With the use of add-ins, what do report developers now have the ability to do?(Choose two.)
A. Add application specific toolbars

B. Launch other applications
C. Dynamically set page size
D. Set database connections based on a parameter
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 55
In which two sections of a report can you insert a Cross-Tab object? (Choose two.)
A. Group Header
B. Page Header
C. Report Header
D. Details
210-260 pdf Answer: A, C

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