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Real and effective Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-475 exam dumps and 300-475 pdf online download

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Cisco exam certification information

300-475 CLDACI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/cldaci.html

Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-475 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Which two planes are involved in the discovery of hypervisor hosts on the Cisco ACI? (Choose two.) 

A. data 

B. management 

C. control 

D. HSRP 

E. LLDP 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 2

What are two benefits of the Clos architecture? (Choose two.) 

A. improved fabric scalability 

B. complicated network design and implementation 

C. multiple nonblocking ECMP paths from all leafs 

D. limited fabric scalability 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 3

Which best describes the Cisco ACI fabric configuration? 

A. manual discovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design 

B. autodiscovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design 

C. autodiscovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design 

D. manual discovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 4

In Cisco ACI, what is the order of steps for deploying an EPG on a specific port with Cisco APIC using the CLI? 

A. Create a tenant > Create a private network > Create a bridge domain > Create an application profile > Associate the

EPG with a specific port 

B. Create a tenant > Create a bridge domain > Create a private network > Create an application profile > Associate the

EPG with a specific port 

C. Create a tenant > Create an application profile > Associate the EPG with a specific port > Create a bridge domain >

Create a private network 

D. Create a tenant > Create an application profile > Create a bridge domain > Create a private network > Associate the

EPG with a specific port 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.) 

A. host connectivity scalability 

B. spine interconnectivity 

C. leaf interconnectivity 

D. high 40-Gb/s port density 

Correct Answer: CD 

 

QUESTION 6

In Cisco ACI, if no contract is attached to the EPG, what is the default behavior? 

A. All ICMP packets are allowed in inter-EPG communication. 

B. All TCP ports are allowed in inter-EPG communication. 

C. Inter-EPG communication is disabled. 

D. Unidirectional traffic is allowed for all protocols in inter-EPG communication. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 7

What is the name of the program that provides a real-time display of REST API commands that the Cisco APIC

processes to perform GUI interactions in Cisco APIC? 

A. CLI Editor 

B. API Inspector 

C. APIC Console 

D. ACI Inspector 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 8

What is the programmatic interface of the APIC? 

A. Northbound REST APIs 

B. neighbor solicitation 

C. logical model 

D. DME 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

Which entity managesLayer 4 to Layer 7 services in the Cisco ACI? 

A. vendor 

B. Cisco APIC 

C. MP-BGP 

D. ISIS 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 10

Which two ways extend Layer 2 domain beyond the ACI fabric? (Choose two.) 

A. Extend the EPG out of the ACI fabric by statically assigning a leaf port (along with a VLAN ID) to an EPG. 

B. Extend the bridge domain within the ACI fabric. 

C. Extend the Layer 2 domain with remote VTEP. 

D. Extend the Layer 3 domain with VSPEX. 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 11

When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS? 

A. network ports 

B. port groups 

C. ACLs 

D. VLANs 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 12

How many Cisco APIC controllers are required to form a Cisco APIC cluster? 

A. three controllers, 3N redundancy 

B. two controllers, N+1 redundancy 

C. three controllers, N+2 redundancy 

D. three controllers, 2N+1 redundancy 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 13

What are the two valid SPAN or ERSPAN source options to copy the traffic from the ports as part of troubleshooting?

(Choose two.) 

A. one or more switch ports 

B. a Layer 3 subinterface (l3extLIfP) 

C. VLANs or EPGs 

D. a destination IP for the ERSPAN with an IPv6 address 

Correct Answer: AC

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Where to get the latest Microsoft MCSA 70-742 dumps and 70-742 practice test questions and answers

The latest updates Microsoft MCSA 70-742 dumps, 70-742 pdf free download, 70-742 exam practice test questions to improve your skills.
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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-742.aspx Candidates for this exam manage identities using the functionalities in Windows Server 2016. Candidates install, configure, manage, and maintain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) as well as implement Group Policy Objects (GPOs).

Candidates should also be familiar with implementing and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory
Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS), and Web Application proxy.

pass4itsure 70-742 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
  • Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
  • Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
  • Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
  • Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)

Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-742 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Your company has multiple branch offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain.
After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the
domain.
You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain.
What should you do?
A. Configure the technician\\’s user account as a manager service account.
B. Run the Set-ADComputer cmdlet.
C. Modify the Security settings of the Computers container.
D. Add the technician to the Domain Computers group.
Correct Answer: C
Users who have the Create Account Objects privilege for the Computers container can create an unlimited number of
computer accounts in the domain. You can grant this privilege by accessing the Advanced Security settings on the
Security Tab of the Computer container via Active Directory Users And Computers or the Active Directory Administrative
Center.
References: https://books.google.co.za/books?id=LvNODQAAQBAJandpg=PT268andlpg=PT268anddq=Modify+the+Se
curity+settings+of+the+Computers+container+2016andsource=blandots=1lRBQ21cL0andsig=1AUSon_6cjIqyN_927iOB
7z3Egandhl=enandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwjBi4OS-rnbAhXKD8AKHerKDcgQ6AEISjAC#v=onepageandq=Modify%20th
e%20Security%20settings%20of%20the%20Computers%20container%202016andf=false

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration.
PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode
Windows2008R2Forest
PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode Windows2008R2Domain PS C:\>
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device
registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema (not just domain schema).
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-fs/deployment/configure-a-federation-server-with-device-registration-service

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains several domains.
An administrator named Admin01 installs Windows Server 2016 on a server named Server1 and then joins Server1 to
the contoso.com domain.
Admin01 plans to configure Server1 as an enterprise root certification authority (CA).
You need to ensure that Admin01 can configure Server1 as an enterprise CA. The solution must use the principle of
least privilege.
To which group should you add Admin01?
A. Server Operators in the contoso.com domain
B. Cert Publishers on Server1
C. Enterprise Key Admins in the contoso.com domain
D. Enterprise Admins in the contoso.com domain.
Correct Answer: D
To install Active Directory Certificate Services, log on as a member of both the Enterprise Admins group and the root
domain\\’s Domain Admins group. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/core-network-guide/cncg/server-certs/install-the-certification-authority

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You recently deleted 5,000 objects from the
Active Directory database.
You need to reduce the amount of disk space used to store the Active Directory database on a domain controller. Which
tool should you use?
A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Domain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 5,000 user accounts.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named DomainPolicy that is linked to the domain and a GPO named DCPolicy
that is linked to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
You need to use the application control policy settings to prevent several applications from running on the network.
What should you do?
A. From the Computer Configuration node of DCPolicy, modify Security Settings.
B. From the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Security Settings.
C. From the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Administrative Templates.
D. From the User Configuration node of DCPolicy, modify Security Settings.
E. From the User Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Folder Redirection.
F. From user Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Administrative Templates.
G. From Preferences in the User Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Windows Settings.
H. From Preferences in the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Windows Settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The computer accounts of Server1 and Server2 are in the
Computers container.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the domain. GPO1 has multiple computer settings defined and
has following configurations.pass4itsure 70-742 exam question q6

An administrator discovers that GPO1 is not applied to Server1. GPO1 is applied to Server2. Which configuration
possibly prevents GPO1 from being applied to Server1?
A. The permissions on the domain object of contoso.com
B. The WMI filter settings
C. The Enforced setting of GPO1
D. The GpoStatus property
E. The loopback processing mode in GPO1
F. The permissions on the domain object of contoso.com
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-firewall/create-wmi-filters-for-the-gpo


QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains
a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration.
PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode
Windows2008R2Forest PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode Windows2008R2Domain PS C:\>
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device
registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema. Upgrading a domain controller will run
adprep.exe to upgrade the schema as part of the upgrade process.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-fs/deployment/configure-a-federation-server-
with-device-registration-service https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/deploy/upgrade-domain-
controllers-towindows-server-2012-r2-and-windows-server-2012

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The domain contains an Active Directory
Federation Services (AD FS) server named Server1.
On a standalone server named Server2, you install and configure the Web Application Proxy.
You have an internal web application named WebApp1. AD FS has a relying party trust for WebApp1.
You need to provide external users with access to WebApp1. Authentication to WebApp1 must use AD FS
preauthentication.
Which tool should you use to publish WebApp1?
A. Remote Access Management on Server2
B. Remote Access Management on Server1
C. AD FS Management on Server2
D. AD FS Management on Server1
E. Routing and Remote Access on Server1
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/web-application-proxy/publishing-applications-using-ad-fs-preauthentication

 

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Users frequently access the website of an
external partner company.
The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com.
The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the
Web server will change.
After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website.
However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website.
You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP address immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a forest root domain named contoso.com and a
child domain named eu.contoso.com. Each domain contains two domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest functional level is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain functional level of contoso.com is Windows Server
2012 R2. The domain functional level of eu.contoso.com is Windows Server 2008 R2.
You need to raise the domain functional level of contoso.com to Windows Server 2016. The solution must minimize
administrative effort.
What should you do before you raise the domain functional level?
A. Raise the forest functional level
B. Upgrade all of the domain controllers in the forest
C. Upgrade all of the domain controllers in contoso.com
D. Raise the domain functional level of eu.contoso.com
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/active-directory-functional-levels

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers
named DC1 and DC2.
DC1 holds the RID master operations role. DC1 fails and cannot be repaired. You need to move the RID role to DC2.
Solution: On DC2, you open the command prompt, run ntdsutil.exe, connect to DC2, and use the Transfer RID master
option.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
There are 2 ways of transferring FSMO roles. You can do that using graphical consoles available on a DC or any
server/workstation with Administrative Tools / Remote Server Administration Tools installed or using command-line tool
called
ntdsutil.
First of all you need to connect to Domain Controller to which you want to transfer FSMO roles. To do that you have to
type:
ntdsutil: roles (enter)
fsmo maintenance: connections (enter)
server connections: connect to server (enter)
server connections: quit (enter)
fsmo maintenance:
Now you will be able to transfer FSMO roles to selected Domain Controller.
RID master
fsmo maintenance: transfer RID master (enter)
Click “Yes” button to move role.
References: http://kpytko.pl/active-directory-domain-services/transferring-fsmo-roles-from-command-line/

QUESTION 12
You deploy a new enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You plan to issue certificates based on the User certificate template.
You need to ensure that the issued certificates are valid for two years and support autoenrollment.
What should you do first?
A. Run the certutil.exe command and specify the resubmit parameter.
B. Duplicate the User certificate template.
C. Add a new certificate template for CA1 to issue.
D. Modify the Request Handling settings for the CA.
Correct Answer: B
The built-in templates to do support allow auto-enrollment. You need to duplicate the template then modify the
permissions on the new template. References:
https://docs.centrify.com/en/centrify/adminref/index.html#page/cloudhelp/cloud-admin-install-create-cert-templates.html

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: You open Active Directory Users and Computers, right-click contoso.com in the console tree, and then click
Operations Master.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You need to use the Schema snap-in to find the schema master. The Schema snap-in is not installed by default but can
be installed by using Schmmgmt.dll.
References: https://www.petri.com/determining_fsmo_role_holders

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Where to get the latest Microsoft MCSA 70-741 dumps and 70-741 practice test questions and answers

The latest updates Microsoft MCSA 70-741 dumps, 70-741 pdf free download, 70-741 exam practice test questions to improve your skills.
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70-741 exam

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-741: Networking with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-741.aspx Candidates for this exam perform tasks related to the networking features and functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates should have familiarity with implementing and managing DNS, DHCP, and IPAM, as well as deploying remote access solutions such as VPN and RADIUS.

Candidates should also have experience managing DFS and branch cache solutions, configuring high-performance network features and functionality, and implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN) solutions such as Hyper-V Network Virtualization (HNV) and Network Controller.

pass4itsure 70-741 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)
  • Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)
  • Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)

Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-741 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the
registration.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B. From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C. From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D. From IPv4, create a new filter.
E. From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F. From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G. From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H. From Scope1, create a reservation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Both servers have the DHCP Server
server role installed.
Server1 has a DHCP scope named Scope1. Server2 has a DHCP scope named Scope2.
You need to ensure that client computers can get an IP address if a single DHCP server fails. You must be able to
control the percentage of requests to which each DHCP server responds during normal network operations.
What should you do?
A. Add Server1 and Server2 as nodes in a failover cluster, and then configure the DHCP Server server role.
B. Add Server1 and Server2 as nodes in a failover cluster, and then configure the quorum mode.
C. On Server1 and Server2, configure DHCP failover for Scope1 and Scope2.
D. Add Server1 and Server2 as nodes in a failover cluster, and then configure port rules for UDP 67 and UDP 68.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server
named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server2 has 10 IPv4 scopes.
You need to ensure that the scopes are backed up every 30 minutes to the folder D:\DHCPBackup.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
You have 2000 devices, One hundred of the devices are mobile devices that have physical addresses beginning with
98-5F.
You have a DHCP server named Server1.
You need to ensure that the mobile devices register their host name by using a DNS suffix of mobile.contoso.com
A. From the properties of Scopte1, Modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B. From the properties of Scope1, Configure Name Protection.
C. From the Properties of IPV4, configure the bindings.
D. From IPV4, create a new filter.
E. From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F. From IPv4, run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G. From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H. From Scope1, create a reservation
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10 and are configured as DHCP clients. Your helpdesk received calls today
from
users who failed to access the network from their Windows 10 computer.
You open the DHCP console as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q5

You need to ensure that all of the Windows 10 computers can receive a DHCP lease.
Solution: You activate the scope.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd183581(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Host1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You configure Host1 as a virtualization host and create 20 new virtual machines on Host1.
You need to ensure that all of the virtual machines can connect to the Internet through Host1.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On a virtual machine, install the Remote Access server role.
B. From the properties of each virtual machine, enable virtual LAN identification.
C. From the properties of each virtual machine, connect to the virtual machine switch.
D. On Host1, configure the network address translation (NAT) network.
E. On Host1, create an internal virtual machine switch and specify an IP address for the switch.
Correct Answer: CDE
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee449441(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 7
You have a Hyper-V server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has an IP address of
192.168.1.78. Server1 has a container named Container1 that hosts a web application on port 84. Container1 has an IP
address of
172.16.5.6. Container1 has a port mapping from port 80 on Server1 to port 84 on Container1. You have a server named
Server2 that has an IP address of 192.168.1.79, You need to connect to the web application from Server2. To which IP
address and port should you connect?
A. 172.16.5.6:80
B. 192.168.1.78:80
C. 172.16.5.6:84
D. 192.168.1.78:84
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
You have a test environment that includes two servers named Server1 and Server2. The severs run Windows Server
2016. You need to ensure that you can implement SMB Direct between the servers. Which feature should the servers
support?
A. (RDMA)
B. Multipath I/O (MPIO)
C. virtual machine queue (VMQ)
D. single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV)
Correct Answer: A
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134210%28v=ws.11%29.aspx?f=255andMSPPError=-2147217396

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the domain is Windows
Server 2012.
The network uses an address space of 192.168.0.0/16 and contains multiple subnets.
The network is not connected to the Internet.
The domain contains three servers configured as shown in the following table.

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q9

Client computers obtain TCP/IP settings from Server3.
You add a second network adapter to Server2. You connect the new network adapter to the Internet. You install the
Routing role service on Server2.
Server1 has four DNS zones configured as shown in the following table.

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q9-1

You need to create a zone to ensure that Server1 can resolve single-label names. What should you name the zone on
Server1?
A. . (root)
B. WINS
C. NetBIOS
D. GlobalNames
Correct Answer: D
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc816610(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q10

You have the following subnets defined on Server1.

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q10-1

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries
from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security on Server1, you create an inbound rule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd421709(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q11

You have the following subnets defined on Server1.

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q11-1

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries
from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServerQueryResolutionPolicy cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/powershell/windows/dns-server/add-dnsserverqueryresolutionpolicy


QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a VPN server.
Server1 is configured to allow domain users to establish VPN connections from 06:00 to 18:00 everyday of the week.
You need to ensure that domain users can establish VPN connections only between Monday and Friday.
Solution: From Network Policy Server, you modify the Network Policies on Server1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your company has a main office in London and a branch office in Seattle. The offices connect to each other by using a
WAN link.
In the London office, you have a Distributed File System (DFS) server named FS1 that contains a folder named
Folder1.
In the Seattle office, you have a DFS server named FS2.
All servers run Windows Server 2016.
You configure replication of Folder1 to FS2.
Users in both offices frequently add files in Folder1.
You monitor DFS Replication, and you discover excessive replication over the WAN link during business hours.
You need to reduce the amount of bandwidth used for replication during business hours. The solution must ensure that
the users can continue to save content to Folder1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the quota settings on Folder1 on FS2.
B. Modify the properties of the replication group.
C. Configure the copy of Folder1 on FS2 as read-only.
D. Modify the replicated folder properties of Folder1 on FS1.
Correct Answer: B

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High quality Cisco CCDE 352-001 Practice Exam Questions: 352-001 CCDE

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352-001 CCDE – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccde.html

Latest effective Cisco CCDE 352-001 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with
headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access
technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing
VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the
headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The
applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized
environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which
connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute,
network, and storage with support for these features? single-pane infrastructure management, support for
multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software
elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self-provisioning of virtual machines using
catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. AnsibleC. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some
minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but
MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to
optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based
on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF

 

QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model?
(Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend
to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring
for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are
on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the
segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three
options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically
blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of
VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all portsforward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically
blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without
upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable
voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT
capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact AssessmentE. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not
Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which
traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the
same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the
campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on
a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of
switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and
MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the
eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT
environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 21
Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A. Delay an attack from reaching its target
B. Redirect an attack away from its target
C. Monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D. Reverse the direction of an attack
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 22
What is a correct design consideration of IPv6 MLD snooping?
A. MLD snooping requires IGMP snooping to be implemented.
B. MLD snooping conserves CPU by sharing IPv4 and IPv6 multicast topology.
C. MLD snooping is used to filter all MLD queries.
D. MLD snooping conserves bandwidth on switches.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 23
The Middle East-based cloud service provider, CSP, is planning to launch five data centers in Egypt,
United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Turkey. CSP is looking for VLAN extension and DCIs
between these five data centers to allow for software replication, where original and backup VMs must be
on the same subnet. Which tunneling technology must they use?
A. VPWS
B. L2TPv3
C. IPsec VPN
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 24
A service provider wants to use a controller to automate the provisioning of service function chaining.
Which two overlay technologies can be used with EVPN MP-BGP to create the service chains in the data
center? (Choose 2)A. MPLS L2VPN
B. 802.1Q
C. MPLSoGRE
D. VXLAN
E. Provider Backbone Bridging EVPN
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 25
In secure IP multicast, which protocol handles group key management?
A. IPsec
B. GDOI
C. MD5
D. SHA-256
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 26
What is a characteristic of DMVPN as related to IP multicast?
A. The RP should be placed either in the core network or on the DMVPN headend.
B. When the multicast source is at a spoke, the data flows directly towards the spokes that want to
receive the traffic.
C. Multicast on DMVPN is similar in behavior to the broadcast multi-access network.
D. The RP is typically placed at the spoke router.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 27
Your company requires two diverse multihop eBGP peerings to a partner network. Which two methods
should you use to improve lost peer detection? (Choose 2)
A. Use Fast Peering Session Deactivation for the peers.
B. Use sub-second keepalives for the peers.
C. Use sub-second hold timers for the peers.
D. Use sub-second minimum route advertisement Interval timers for the peers.
E. Use Selective Address Tracking and match the peers.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 28
Which two Layer 2 features should be applied to the network location identified by a circle? (Choose two)
A. UDLC
B. PortFast
C. PortFast trunk
D. BPDU filter
E. loop guard
F. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: BF

 

QUESTION 29
When data center 2 has a spanning-tree convergence event, data center 1 also sees high CPU utilization
on its switches. Which mechanism can reduce high CPU issue in this situation?A. Enable BPDU guard between switches A and D.
B. Enable BPDU filter between the routers B and C.
C. Enable BPDU filter between the switches A and D.
D. Enable BPDU guard between routers B and C.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 30
When designing a network that consists of multiple IPv6 multicast servers on a Layer 2 VLAN, which
option should you consider regarding IPv6 multicast traffic forwarding?
A. The RP IP address is embedded in IPv6 multicast address.
B. IPv6 multicast addresses are assigned based on network prefix.
C. IPv6 multicast addresses are assigned by IANA.
D. IPv6 multicast flooding optimization requires Layer 2 switches support of MLD snooping.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 31
You are designing a network virtualization solution across an enterprise campus. The design requirements
include the ability to virtualize the data plane and control plane using VLANs and VRFs while maintaining
end-to-end logical path transport separation across the network, with access to grouped resources
available at the access edge. Your network virtualization design can be categorized as which three primary
models? (Choose 3)
A. group virtualization
B. services virtualization
C. edge isolation
D. session isolation
E. path isolation
F. device virtualization
Correct Answer: BEF

 

QUESTION 32
Which openstack component implements role-based access control?
A. Horizon
B. Nova
C. Neutron
D. Keystone
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 33
You are designing an OSPF network with multiple areas of for a large client. Due to the size of the routing
domain, all areas except the backbone area are configured as stub areas. A new requirement is to connect
a WAN link to a partner organization with a static route to one of the stub areas, area 100. What should
you do to redesign area 100, if anything, in order to support this WAN link while minimizing the size of the
link state database?
A. Convert area 100 into an NSSA.
B. Redistribute the static route as OSPF type E1.
C. Convert area 100 into a normal area.
D. No configuration changes to area 100 are needed.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 34
Which statement describes the main difference between the Layer 2 loop-free inverted U design and the
Layer 2 loop-free U design?
A. A loop-free U design has all uplinks active, but a loop-free inverted U design does not.
B. A loop-free inverted U design has all uplinks active, but a loop-free U design does not.
C. A loop-free U design extends VLANs between access switches, but a loop-free inverted U design does
not.
D. A loop-free U design extends VLANs between distribution switches, but a loop-free inverted U design
does not.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 35
Which statement about DHCPv6 Guard features design is true?
A. A certificate must be installed on the DHCPv6 server and relay agent.
B. DHCPv6 client requests can be rate-limited to protect the control plane.
C. Rogue DHCPv6 servers cannot assign IPv6 addresses to clients.
D. DHCPv6 client requests can be filtered to protect the data plane.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 36
You are the consultant network designer for a large GET VPN deployment for a large bank with national
coverage. Between 1800 and 2000 remote locations connect to the central location through four hubs
using an MPLS backbone and using two key servers. The bank is concerned with security and replay
attacks. Which two actions should you use to tune GET VPN to meet the bank requirements? (Choose 2)
A. Replace unicast rekey with multicast rekey.
B. Increase the cryptographic key size.
C. Reduce the SAR clock interval duration.
D. Reduce the Dead Peer Detection periodic timer.
E. Increase the TEK and KEK lifetime.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 37
Which two disadvantages are of using proxy servers as compared to stateful firewalls? (Choose two)
A. Proxy servers expose the source addresses of traffic flows.
B. Proxy servers must be explicitly set to support new applications and protocols.
C. Proxy servers typically perform more slowly.
D. Proxy servers use network address translation as their primary security mechanism.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 38
A mobile service provider wants to design and deploy an Ethernet service with similar physical link failover/
failback characteristics on the active/backup links as APS/MSP SONET. Which Layer 2 service addresses
this design requirement?
A. Ethernet Pseudowires
B. FlexLink
C. MLPPP
D. Port-Channel
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 39
You are developing the routing design for two merging companies that have overlapping IP address
space. What must you consider when developing the routing and NAT design?
A. Global to local NAT translation is done before routing.
B. Local to global NAT translation is done after routing.
C. Global to local NAT translation is done after policy-based routing.
D. Local to global NAT translation is done before policy-based routing.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 40
Which two components are the responsibility of the customers in a Platform as a Service offering?
(Choose 2)
A. data
B. APIs
C. hardware
D. applications
E. infrastructure connectivity
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 41
You are designing a FabricPath network that connects to a spine-and-leaf topology using layer 2 IS-IS as
the IGP. The solution should be able to detect changes in the network topology and calculate loop-free
paths to other nodes in the network that are being used as top-of-rack switches. Which four options are
characteristics of this FabricPath design solution? (Choose 4)
A. The FabricPath domain should be replaced because it does not run STP.
B. The switch operating system uses multiple equal-cost, parallel links that provide ECMP.
C. To use the basic FabricPath functionality, you must configure IS-IS on every interface between the
leaf-and-spine switches.
D. FabricPath Layer 2 IS-IS uses the standard IS-IS functionality to populate up to 16 routes for a given
destination switch.
E. This path is used for forwarding unicast Fabricpath frames.
F. Each switch computes its shortest path to every other switch in the network using the SPF algorithm.
G. The interfaces in a FabricPath network run only the FabricPath Layer 2 IS-IS protocol with FTags
disabled.
Correct Answer: BDEF

 

QUESTION 42
Which is a requirement for performing attack detection by use of anomaly detection technologies?
A. Baseline data
B. Packet captures
C. Syslog data
D. Exploit signatures
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 43
Which load balancing option for iP-only traffic is the least efficient in terms of Layer 2 EtherChnnel physical
links utilization?
A. on a per port number basisB. on a per destination MAC address basis
C. on a per destination IP address basis
D. on a per source IP address basis
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 44
Which option forces traffic to take an explicit route across a backbone network?
A. IGP cost
B. TE metric
C. TE affinity
D. multiple IGPs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 45
Which two are loT sensor-specific constraints? (Choose 2)
A. the amount of devices
B. processing power
C. memory
D. cooling
E. standard transport protocols
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 46
Company ABC is using an Ethernet virtual circuit as its provider’s DCI solution. A goal is to reduce the time
to detect the link failure. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?
A. link aggregation group
B. Ethernet OAM
C. UDLD
D. spanning-tree bridge assurance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 47
A company decided to replace IEEE 802.1s on the campus and you must propose a Layer 2 open
standard technology that is highly scalable, ensures a resilient loop-free switched domain, and allows for
utilizing all links in the Layer 2 domain.
Which Layer 2 technology meets these requirements?
A. TRILL
B. VxLAN
C. LACP
D. FabricPath
E. MST
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 48
You are designing a WAN network solution with EIGRP based on VPLS. The interface speed is 10 Mb/s,
but the access rate of the WAN connection is 256 Kb/s. What should you include in the network design, in
order to avoid potential issues with EIGRP?A. Tag outbound EIGRP traffic and have the WAN provider add it to the priority queue.
B. Set the interface bandwidth to match the access rate.
C. Limit traffic to the access rate with interface traffic shaping.
D. Limit EIGRP traffic to the access rate with a policer.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 49
You are reviewing the Layer 2 VPN service offering of a service provider. A top priority is meeting SLAs for
its customers. Which OAM standard should you recommend to monitor customer VPLS connectivity?
A. OAM for MPLS Networks
B. Connectivity Fault Management
C. Ethernet in the First Mile
D. Ethernet Local Management Interface
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 50
A hosted service provider is designing an IPS solution to protect its DMZ segment. The goal is to detect
and prevent anomalous activities and, at the same time, give the security operations team visibility into any
attempted attacks against the organization. Which IPS solution should you deploy in the Internet perimeter
to accomplish this goal?
A. Deploy IPS as inline mode between the firewall and the servers
B. Deploy IPS as promiscuous mode between the firewall and the servers
C. Deploy IPS as inline mode between the firewall and the internet gateway
D. Deploy IPS as promiscuous mode between the firewall and the internet gateway
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Security Administrator, Zhi Wang, creates the CA Identity Minder roles required to implement delegated administration. Two weeks later, one of these new roles
requires some changes. These changes should be performed by the:
A. Role Owner
B. Role Manager
C. Role Administrator
D. Access Role Membership Approver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which features characterize CA Identity Minder? (Choose three)
A. Assignment of privileges through roles
B. Delegation of the management of users and application access
C. Self-service options that enable users to manage their own accounts
D. User-defined service delivery service catalog that encompasses a menu of services
E. Full automation capabilities for inventory, tracking, maintenance, migration, and security across all enterprise client devices in a single product
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
You are setting up the Bulk Load Client to perform a complete dump of all HR users into CA IdentityMinder. You want to avoid a problem you encountered
previously when a large number of records processed overloaded the server. Which command-line option addresses this issue?
A. imbulkloadclient -T, –transformOnly
B. imbulkloadclient -b, –batchSize <number>
C. imbulkloadclient -i, –inputFile <file, batchsize>
D. imbulkloadclient – e, –endpointlnfoFile <file, number>
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In CA IdentityMinder, which self-service actions can you perform using public tasks? (Choose two)
A. Self-registration
B. Modifying your profile
C. Changing your password
D. Resetting a forgotten password
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which statement about CA Identity Minder end points is TRUE?
A. An endpoint type can only contain one instance of an endpoint.
B. They are generally client operating system versions, such as Windows XP and Red Hat Linux.
C. An endpoint type is the lowest unit of organization in the hierarchical structure managed by the provisioning engine.
D. A specific type of endpoint needs to be enabled on the Provisioning Server to enable CA Id entity Minder to communicate to it.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During the installation, CA Identity Minder creates several database schemas. Later, to provide scalability, you can create a separate database to replace any one
of these, Use the CreateDatabase script to set up a new:
A. Auditing database instance.
B. Workflow database instance.
C. Object Store database instance.
D. Task persistence database instance.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Provisioning Server is TRUE?
A. It manages accounts on end point systems.
B. It communicates directly with the Snapshot Database.
C. It is a required component only if you intend to implement log management.
D. It is an optional component that enables you to fully implement Password Services and Single Sign- on.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which step do you need to perform to configure email server settings for the JBoss application server?
A. Create a new XML file.
B. Modify the mail-service.xml file.
C. Change a property in the console.
D. Modify the Mail Transport Host field for the mail session.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In an email template, what is the purpose of the <% %> tag?
A. Inserts a static text variable
B. Embeds JavaScript into a template
C. Presents event context information
D. Indicates that the template is invalid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which ETAUTIL control statement is used to set the same attribute values for a set of objects?
A. MASSCHANGE
B. EXPLORE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The role model in CA GovernanceMinder can be dynamically updated whenever changes are made in CA Identity Minder using:
A. Smart Provisioning.
B. Role Engineering.
C. Reverse Synchronization.
D. Provisioning Synchronization Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which task do you perform using the CA IdentityMinder Management Console?
A. Manage the Provisioning Server.
B. Customize default roles and tasks.
C. Create and manage the Provisioning Directory.
D. Create an agent that CA SiteMinder can communicate with.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are implementing CA IdentityMinder at Forward Inc., an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. At Forward Inc., a single
managed endpoint containing every person does not exist. However all users are contained in a payroll database, which can become the source of the global
users for the provisioning directory. In this context, the payroll database is known as a:
A. corporate store.
B. primary endpoint.
C. secondary endpoint.
D. operational database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two components communicate using a Connector?
A. Provisioning Server and endpoint
B. Policy Server and Report Server
C. User Store and Provisioning directory
D. Report Server and Snapshot Database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To help ensure role granularity, when you create provisioning roles, which guideline should you follow?
A. Every role should have at least one user.
B. Account templates should be assigned to individual users rather than to roles.
C. Depending on the size of an organization, a role should have between 50 and 200 users.
D. For most organizations, 50 percent of user access is from permanent roles and 50percent is from temporary roles.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
When you configure a WorkPoint manual activity, you can specify multiple Participant Resolvers, Using an order of precedence, CA Identity Minder identifies and
applies the first resolver and ignores any subsequent resolvers. To select the resolver, which order of precedence does CA IdentityMinder follow?

1. Role
2. Filter
3. Group
4. Custom
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 2,3,4,1
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 4,1,2,3Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Forward Inc. is an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. Forward Inc. has asked you to demonstrate how CA IdentityMinder
supports account provisioning. In the CA IdentityMinder configuration that you will use for your demonstration, which component is optional?
A. Provisioning Server
B. Provisioning Directory
C. IdentityMinder Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
When you build the CA IdentityMinder environment, you can configure support for public tasks. To do this, you specify a:
A. group and a name.
B. URL alias and a user.
C. directory and a task list.
D. role definition file and a default role.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
You want to configure password synchronization with UNIX systems. Which component enables CA Identity Minder to authenticate passwords against external
security systems?
A. Credential Provider
B. Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM)
C. Graphical Identification and Authorization (GINA)
D. Java Authentication & Authorization Service (JAAS) Agent
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which optional component of the CA IdentityMinder architecture provides advanced authentication?
A. Connector Server
B. Provisioning Server
C. Resource Proxy Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 23

You are using CA SiteMJnder and CA IdentityMinder in an integrated environment. To configure directory mapping in the CA SiteMinder Policy Server, which
steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Create a Table element for each attribute.
B. Add a response attribute named sm_userdn for the SMJJSERNAME attribute.
C. Add the authentication directory to the CA IdentityMinder environment domain.
D. Use the Reference element for a secondary table to define its relationship to the primary table.
E. In the CA IdentityMinder environment realm, map the authorization directory to the authentication directory.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 24
CA IdentityMinder must integrate with CA SiteMinder in order to:
A. automatically remove white space in passwords.
B. add multiple regular expressions to a single password policy.
C. prevent passwords that are all numeric using a regular expression.
D. specify the maximum number of repeated characters in a password.Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which statement about using Active Directory password synchronization with CA IdentityMinder is TRUE?
A. The new password is only propagated to the user’s native Windows account.
B. Changes to password restrictions on the endpoint are automatically propagated to the CA IdentityMinder Server.
C. The Password Synchronization Agent must be installed on the system on which password changes areto be intercepted.
D. The system on which you are installing the Password Synchronization Agent must be managed by a CA SiteMinder Policy Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
You have deployed CA IdentityMinder with a CA SiteMinder Policy Server. During the second day of testing your installation, you receive a “Not Loaded” error
message when you attempt to log in. You check that the User Store is running. Which other action should you take to investigate this issue?
A. Check the application server log.
B. Verify that theWeb Agent is running correctly.
C. Verify that CA SiteMinder can connect to the User Store.
D. Set the Internet browser option “Show friendly error message”to off to view the status page.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
For workflow installation, many steps that were previously manual are now performed automatically by the installer. Nonetheless, you still need to use the
Management Console to:
A. create the workflow database.
B. populate the database with sample workflows.
C. enable workflow for your CA IdentityMinder environment.
D. create a JDBC data source and connection file for the application server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about Task Execution Web Services (TEWS) is TRUE?
A. Its interface is slower than the native web interface due to XML parsing.
B. It enables a CA SiteMinder Policy Server to support CA Identity Minder.
C. It is used by CA IdentityMinder to export data to CA GovernanceMinder.
D. It translates requests into the internal languages of the provisioning software.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Because of a recent acquisition by Forward Inc., which will add 1800 new users to the system, you decide to use the Bulk Loader to feed the information to CA
IdentityMinder, You will need to prepare a file for the Bulk Loader, containing the relevant details. Which Bulk Loader input file guidelines do you need to follow?
(Choose three)
A. The file should contain no header.
B. A field representing the action is mandatory.
C. Each file must describe a single managed object type.
D. Multivalued attributes must beseparated by a hash (#) symbol.
E. Attribute names should be the physical or well-known names of the managed objects.
Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of
TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large
complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the
review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the Requirements Management process? A. It is used to develop requirements for Transition Architectures that deliver business value
B. It is used to dispose of, address and prioritize architecture requirements
C. It is used to establish requirements for Phase A
D. It is used to manage architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle
E. It is used to review business requirements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence: TOGAF provides a set of reference materials for establishing an architecture function within an
organization known as the_________.
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Content Framework
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Architecture Roadmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all of the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except
______________________.
A. Ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. Ensuring flexibility of the enterprise architecture to meet business needs
C. Improving the maturity of the organization\’s architecture discipline
D. Monitoring of architecture contracts
E. Preparing architecture review reports
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which model within TOGAF is closely related to the concept of Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The ARTS data model
B. The Architecture Governance Framework
C. The Enterprise Continuum
D. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as
Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, Which of the following activities is described as part of the approach in the Preliminary Phase of
the ADM? A. Creating the Architecture Vision deliverable
B. Defining a set of Architecture Principles
C. Developing an Architecture Contract
D. Extending the business scenario with business modeling
E. Preparing a consolidated Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What class of architectural information within the Architecture Repository defines processes that support governance of
the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used when developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. To describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. To identify and understand business requirements
D. To provide a system for continuous monitoring E. To structure re-usable architecture and solution assets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project\’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the
target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which section of the TOGAF document contains a structured metamodel for architectural artifacts?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following is
not a business imperative that should be considered?
A. Business requirements B. Cultural aspirations
C. Forecast financial requirements
D. Strategic Intent
E. Technical elegance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Architecture Definition Document?
A. To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
C. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
D. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
E. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enterprise Architecture
Capability?
A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap
B. Populate the Architecture Repository
C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum
D. Use the Architecture Development Method
E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance
Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where
multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which one of the following best describes a primary use of the Architecture Vision document?
A. A checklist for compliance reviews
B. An evaluation tool to select vendors to conduct a proof of concept demonstration
C. A tool for calculating detailed cost estimates
D. A tool for project planning the implementation activities
E. A tool for selling the benefits of the proposed capability to stakeholders
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. As the architecture evolves, the assets in the Solutions Continuum progress towards a (n)
_____ A. Common Systems Architecture
B. Industry Specific Architecture
C. Foundation Solution
D. Organization Specific Solution
E. Technology Neutral Implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing
Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake
successful enterprise architecture, except __________.
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase
C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. To define the capabilities of the organization
B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project
C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change
D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library,
Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. TOGAF covers the development of four architecture domains, Application, Business, Data
and__________.
A. Capability
B. Segment
C. Technology D. Transition
E. Vision
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?
A. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B. A qualitative view of the solution to communicate the intent of the architect
C. A quantitative view of the solution to measure the implementation
D. A record of deviations from the planned architectural approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. A Common Systems Architecture
B. A Foundation Architecture
C. An Industry-Specific Architecture
D. An Organization-Specific Architecture
E. A Solution Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is a characteristic of a Foundation Architecture?
A. It contains only solution building blocks
B. It contains business functions and processes specific to a particular industry sector
C. It contains building blocks and their corresponding standards
D. It includes a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
E. It includes models for common high-level business functions, such as supply chain management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Statement of Architecture Work?
A. It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements
B. It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
C. It is sent from the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
D. It provides a high-level aspirational view of the end architecture project
E. It provides a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out theprinciple?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement
Correct Answer: A

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Pass4itsure ISC CISSP Dumps Free Demo Download(1-20)
QUESTION 1
Asynchronous Communication transfers data by sending:
A. bits of data sequentially
B. bits of data sequentially in irregular timing patterns
C. bits of data in sync with a heartbeat or clock
D. bits of data simultaneously
CISSP exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: B Asynchronous Communication transfers data by sending bits of data in irregular timing patterns. In asynchronous transmission each character is transmitted separately, that is one character

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a Generally Accepted System Security Principle (GASSP)?
A. Computer security supports the mission of the organization
B. Computer security should be cost-effective
C. The conception of computer viruses and worms is unethical.
D. Systems owners have security responsibilities outside their organization.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
The Generally Accepted System Security Principles (GASSP) are security-oriented principles and do not specifically cover viruses or worms. However it is not a best practice to create and distribute

QUESTION 3
Which type of control recognizes that a transaction amount is excessive in accordance with corporate policy?
A. Detection
B. Prevention
C. Investigation
D. Correction
CISSP dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following
is a PRIMARY security concern?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Ownership
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When implementing a secure wireless network, which of the following supports authentication and authorization for
individual client endpoints?
A. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Pre-Shared Key (PSK)
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) Enterprise
D. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Electrical systems are the lifeblood of computer operations. The continued supply of clean, steady power is required to
maintain the proper personnel environment as well as to sustain data operations. Which of the following is not an element that can threaten power systems?
A. Transient Noise
B. Faulty Ground
C. Brownouts
D. UPS
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
An uninterruptible power supply, also uninterruptible power source, UPS or battery/flywheel backup, is an electrical
apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source, ty

QUESTION 7
What is an error called that causes a system to be vulnerable because of the environment in which it is installed?
A. Configuration error
B. Environmental error
C. Access validation error
D. Exceptional condition handling error
CISSP vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
In an environmental error, the environment in which a system is installed somehow causes the system to be vulnerable. This may be due, for example, to an unexpected interaction between an application

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is from the Internet Architecture Board (IAB) Ethics and the Internet (RFC 1087)?
A. Access to and use of the Internet is a privilege and should be treated as such by all users of the systems.
B. Users should execute responsibilities in a manner consistent with the highest standards of their profession.
C. There must not be personal data record-keeping systems whose very existence is secret.
D. There must be a way for a person to prevent information about them, which was obtained for one purpose, from
being used or made available for another purpose without their consent.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
The IAB strongly endorses the view of the Division Advisory Panel of the National Science Foundation Division of Network, Communications Research and Infrastructure which, in paraphrase, characteriz

QUESTION 9
When attempting to establish Liability, which of the following would be describe as performing the ongoing maintenance necessary to keep something in proper working order, updated, effective, or to abide by what is commonly expected in a situation?
A. Due care
B. Due concern
C. Due diligence
D. Due practice
CISSP exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
My friend JD Murray at Techexams.net has a nice definition of both, see his explanation below: Oh, I hate these two. It\’s like describing the difference between andquot;jealouslyandquot; and

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the MOST beneficial to review when performing an IT audit?
A. Audit policy
B. Security log
C. Security policies
D. Configuration settings
CISSP dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What IDS approach relies on a database of known attacks?
A. Signature-based intrusion detection
B. Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection
C. Behavior-based intrusion detection
D. Network-based intrusion detection
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
A weakness of the signature-based (or knowledge-based) intrusion detection approach is that only attack signatures that are stored in a database are detected. Network-based intrusion detection can ei

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is not a form of passive attack?
A. Scavenging
B. Data diddling
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Sniffing
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Details: Data diddling involves alteration of existing data and is extremely common. It is one of the easiest types of crimes to prevent by using access and accounting controls, supervision, auditin

QUESTION 13
What is the main concern with single sign-on?
A. Maximum unauthorized access would be possible if a password is disclosed.
B. The security administrator\’s workload would increase.
C. The users\’ password would be too hard to remember.
D. User access rights would be increased.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
A major concern with Single Sign-On (SSO) is that if a user\’s ID and password are compromised, the intruder would have access to all the systems that the user was authorized for.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is often implemented by a one-for-one disk to disk ratio?
A. RAID Level 1
B. RAID Level 0
C. RAID Level 2
D. RAID Level 5
CISSP vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Logical or technical controls involve the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information. Which of the
following statements pertaining to these types of controls is correct?
A. Examples of these types of controls include policies and procedures, security awareness training, background checks, work habit checks but do not include a review of vacation history, and also do not include increased supervision.
B. Examples of these types of controls do not include encryption, smart cards, access lists, and transmission protocols.
C. Examples of these types of controls are encryption, smart cards, access lists, and transmission protocols.
D. Examples of these types of controls include policies and procedures, security awareness training, background checks, work habit checks, a review of vacation history, and increased supervision.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Logical or technical controls involve the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information. Examples of these types of controls are encryption, smart cards, access lists, and transm

QUESTION 16
Which of the following type of cryptography is used when both parties use the same key to communicate securely with each other?
A. Symmetric Key Cryptography
B. PKI – Public Key Infrastructure
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. DSS – Digital Signature Standard
CISSP exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Symmetric-key algorithms are a class of algorithms for cryptography that use the same cryptographic keys for both encryption of plaintext (sender) and decryption of ciphertext (receiver). The keys m

QUESTION 17
The type of discretionary access control (DAC) that is based on an individual\’s identity is also called:
A. Identity-based Access control
B. Rule-based Access control
C. Non-Discretionary Access Control
D. Lattice-based Access control
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
An identity-based access control is a type of Discretionary Access Control (DAC) that is based on an individual\’s identity. DAC is good for low level security environment. The owner of the fi

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would not correspond to the number of primary keys values found in a table in a relational database?
A. Degree
B. Number of tuples
C. Cardinality
D. Number of rows
CISSP dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
The degree of a table represents the number of columns in a table. All other elements represent the number of rows, or records, thus the number of unique primary keys values within the table.

QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements pertaining to IPSec is incorrect?
A. A security association has to be defined between two IPSec systems in order for bi-directional communication to be
established.
B. Integrity and authentication for IP datagrams are provided by AH.
C. ESP provides for integrity, authentication and encryption to IP datagrams.
D. In transport mode, ESP only encrypts the data payload of each packet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
This is incorrect, there would be a pair of Security Association (SA) needed for bi directional communication and NOT only one SA.

QUESTION 20
The object-relational and object-oriented models are better suited to managing complex data such as required for which of the following?
A. computer-aided development and imaging.
B. computer-aided duplexing and imaging.
C. computer-aided processing and imaging.
D. computer-aided design and imaging.
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The object-relational and object-oriented models are better suited to managing complex data such as required for computer-aided design and imaging. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. andamp; VINES, Russel D.,

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Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format

1.0 Network Concepts 12%

  • 1.1 Describe the function of the network layers as specified by the OSI and the TCP/IP network models
  • 1.2 Describe the operation of the following
  • 1.3 Describe the operation of these network services
  • 1.4 Describe the basic operation of these network device types
  • 1.5 Describe the functions of these network security systems as deployed on the host, network, or the cloud
  • 1.6 Describe IP subnets and communication within an IP subnet and between IP subnets
  • 1.7 Describe the relationship between VLANs and data visibility
  • 1.8 Describe the operation of ACLs applied as packet filters on the interfaces of network devices
  • 1.9 Compare and contrast deep packet inspection with packet filtering and stateful firewall operation
  • 1.10 Compare and contrast inline traffic interrogation and taps or traffic mirroring
  • 1.11 Compare and contrast the characteristics of data obtained from taps or traffic mirroring and NetFlow in the analysis of network traffic
  • 1.12 Identify potential data loss from provided traffic profiles

2.0 Security Concepts 17%

  • 2.1 Describe the principles of the defense in depth strategy
  • 2.2 Compare and contrast these concepts
  • 2.3 Describe these terms
  • 2.4 Describe these security terms
  • 2.5 Compare and contrast these access control models
  • 2.6 Compare and contrast these terms
  • 2.7 Describe these concepts

3.0 Cryptography 12%

  • 3.1 Describe the uses of a hash algorithm
  • 3.2 Describe the uses of encryption algorithms
  • 3.3 Compare and contrast symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms
  • 3.4 Describe the processes of digital signature creation and verification
  • 3.5 Describe the operation of a PKI
  • 3.6 Describe the security impact of these commonly used hash algorithms
  • 3.7 Describe the security impact of these commonly used encryption algorithms and secure communications protocols
  • 3.8 Describe how the success or failure of a cryptographic exchange impacts security investigation
  • 3.9 Describe these items in regards to SSL/TLS

4.0 Host-Based Analysis 19%

  • 4.1 Define these terms as they pertain to Microsoft Windows
  • 4.2 Define these terms as they pertain to Linux
  • 4.3 Describe the functionality of these endpoint technologies in regards to security monitoring
  • 4.4 Interpret these operating system log data to identify an event

5.0 Security Monitoring 19%

  • 5.1 Identify the types of data provided by these technologies
  • 5.2 Describe these types of data used in security monitoring
  • 5.3 Describe these concepts as they relate to security monitoring
  • 5.4 Describe these NextGen IPS event types
  • 5.5 Describe the function of these protocols in the context of security monitoring

6.0 Attack Methods 21%

  • 6.1 Compare and contrast an attack surface and vulnerability
  • 6.2 Describe these network attacks
  • 6.3 Describe these web application attacks
  • 6.4 Describe these attacks
  • 6.5 Describe these endpoint-based attacks
  • 6.6 Describe these evasion methods
  • 6.7 Define privilege escalation
  • 6.8 Compare and contrast remote exploit and a local exploit

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
210-250 exam Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 2
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service
B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA
C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC
D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
210-250 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which definition of a daemon on Linux is true?
A. error check right after the call to fork a process
B. new process created by duplicating the calling process
C. program that runs unobtrusively in the background
D. set of basic CPU instructions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads. Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources
B. failure of full packet capture solution
C. misconfiguration of web filter
D. TCP injection
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?
A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats
B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering
C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device
D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which information security property is supported by encryption?
A. sustainability
B. integrity
C. confidentiality
D. availability
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which term describes the act of a user, without authority or permission, obtaining rights on a system, beyond what were assigned?
A. authentication tunneling
B. administrative abuse
C. rights exploitation
D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which definition of the IIS Log Parser tool is true?
A. a logging module for IIS that allows you to log to a database
B. a data source control to connect to your data source
C. a powerful, versatile tool that makes it possible to run SQL-like queries against log flies
D. a powerful versatile tool that verifies the integrity of the log files
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backoff time.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
210-250 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization?
A. When moving to a different role
B. Upon termination of the employment
C. As described in the asset return policy
D. When the laptop is end of lease
210-250 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event
B. endpoint event
C. NetFlow event
D. intrusion event
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
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A. EDM Generator (EdmGen.exe)
B. ADO.NET Entity Data Model Designer
C. Entity Data Model Wizard
D. Update Model Wizard
070-487 exam Correct Answer: BC

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You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment. Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

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You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5.
You do not have access to SSH or a VPN.
You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites.
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A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Applications can be deployed to remote servers only by administrators who have elevated privileges. The administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2012. You need to select a deployment tool to deploy the application to remote servers for testing. Which tool should you use?
A. Copy Web Site Tool
B. One-Click Publish
C. Publish Web Site Tool
D. Web Deployment Package
070-487  pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.
The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

QUESTION 7
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production. The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate. You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement. What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
070-487  vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are developing a library to support multiple ASP.NET MVC web applications on a shared server. The library provides implementations of security algorithms. If a problem with any of the security algorithms is discovered, a new version of the library must be created and deployed. Application downtime during the update must be minimized. You need to ensure that the new version of the library will be used by all applications as soon as possible. What should you do?
A. Build the web applications and include the security assembly as an embedded resource. When an update is needed, copy the new assembly to the bin directory for the application.
B. Sign all assemblies in each application with the same key used to sign the security assembly. When an update is needed, create a new key pair and re-sign all assemblies.
C. Build the security assembly as a netmodule in a shared location. Use the assembly linker to merge the netmodule into the assemblies for the application. When an update is needed, update the netmodule in the shared location.
D. Install the security assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC). When an update is needed, update the assembly in the GAC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results. The URI for the API call is in a variable named address.
You need to make the API call without blocking. Which code segment should you use?
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070-487 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application has a page that updates an image stored in a database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access an ADO.NET Entity Framework data model. Images and
associated metadata are stored in a single database table. You need to run a single query that updates an image and associated metadata in the database while returning only the number of affected rows. Which method of the EntityCommand type should you use?
A. ExecuteNonQuery()
B. ExecutcScalar()
C. ExecuteDbDataReader()
D. ExecuteReader()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are developing a new ASP.NET MVC application that does not have an existing database. The requirements for the application are not complete, and the SQL data model will likely change. You need to choose an approach to visually manage a data model. Which approach should you use?
A. Physical First
B. Database First
C. Code First
D. Model First
070-487  dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to modify the text of a comment. Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. DELETE
C. POST
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets. The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use. What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
070-487 pdf Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions. Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is an order processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays customers. Customers are filtered on Country and, if provided, on CompanyName. You have an Entity Framework context named db. The Customer class is shown below.
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You need to execute a single deferred query to return the filtered list of customers. Which code segment should you use?
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070-487 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is a loan processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays all loans along with rate information. Lazy loading has been disabled. The Loan class is shown below.
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You need to return the loans and rate information in a single round trip to the database. Which code segment should you use?
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Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You have a website that displays text, pictures, video files, and audio files. The website processes requests from countries and regions all over the world. You plan to migrate the website to the Azure platform. The website has the following requirements:
Encode, store, and stream audio and video at scale.
Load-balance communications with the website instance that is closest to the user’s location.
Deliver content with high-bandwidth and low latency.
You need to recommend the technologies to implement the solution. Which technologies should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate technology to the correct requirement. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
70-534 exam Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* MediaServices
Azure Media Services is being used to power consumer and enterprise streaming solutions worldwide. Combining powerful and highly scalable cloud-based encoding, encryption and steaming components, Azure Media Services is helping customers with valuable and premium video content to easily reach larger audiences on today’s most popular digital devices, such as tablets and mobile phones.
* TrafficManager
* Azure Content Delivery Network
The Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) is designed to send audio, video, applications,images, and other files faster and more reliably to customers using servers that are closest to each user. This dramatically increases speed and availability, resulting in significant user experience improvements.

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You plan to implement a predictive analytics solution in Azure Machine Learning Studio (ML Studio). You intend to train the solution by using existing data that resides onpremises. The on-premises data is a collection of determined text files that total 5 GB in size. You need to identify the process of adding the existing data to the solution. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You need to implement resource security and authentication. For each requirement, which solution should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate solution to the correct requirement. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application that will send push notifications to registered devices. You perform the following actions:
You need to debug push notifications by sending test notifications to registered devices in a controlled way. For each action, which tool should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct action. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Contoso, Ltd., uses Azure websites for their company portal sites. Admin users need enough access to effectively perform site monitoring or management tasks. Management tasks do not include assigning permissions to other users. You need to grant admin access to a group of 10 users. How should you configure the connection? To answer, drag the role or object to the correct connection setting. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy four Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) virtual machines in Azure. All IaaS virtual machines will reside on the same IP subnet. You need to design an Azure virtual network that can accommodate the deployment. The design must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the size of the IP subnet.
Provide the ability to restrict both internal and Internet traffic.
Ensure that the IP addresses of the virtual machines remain the same.
What should you include in the design? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-534 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Not /29.
/29 would normally provide up to 8 IP addresses which should be enough for four VMs. However, Azure reserves five IP addresses so for four VMs, you need a subnet with at least 9 IP addresses.

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:
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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Owner can manage everything, including access.
* Contributors can manage everything except access.
Note: Azure role-based access control allows you to grant appropriate access to Azure AD users, groups, and services, by assigning roles to them on a subscription or resource group or individual resource level.

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You are migrating Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains to Azure. You need to recommend the least complex directory synchronization solution. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate solution to the correct client requirement. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API that you will host by using the Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) libraries. The API is used by an ASP.NET MVC Web App that is hosted in Azure. You need to secure the API by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) B2C. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You manage a large number of on-premises applications. You plan to migrate the applications to Azure. You need to implement Azure Storage for each type of data that the applications use. For each type of data, which storage mechanism should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate storage mechanism to the correct type of data. Each storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are designing the deployment for Linux virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. The VMs will be used for a web app that will run in Azure. The web app must be able to run Bash scripts on demand. Parallel workloads must also be set to scale automatically based on use. You need to design the environment for the Bash scripts and parallel workloads. Which processing type should you use for each component? To answer, drag the appropriate processing types to the correct components. Each processing type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split
bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
A company has 10 on-premises SQL databases. The company plans to move the databases to SQL Server 2012 that runs in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). After migration, the databases will support a limited number of Azure websites in the same Azure Virtual Network. You have the following requirements:
* You must restore copies of existing on-premises SQL databases to the SQL servers that run in Azure IaaS.
* You must be able to manage the SQL databases remotely.
* You must not open a direct connection from all of the machines on the on-premises network to Azure.
* Connections to the databases must originate from only five Windows computers.
You need to configure remote connectivity to the databases. Which technology solution should you implement?
A. Azure Virtual Network site-to-site VPN
B. Azure Virtual Network multi-point VPN
C. Azure Virtual Network point-to-site VPN
D. Azure ExpressRoute
70-534 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Online training

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Practice test

  • Take a Microsoft Official Practice Test for Exam 534
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