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Free Pass4itsure CA CAT-340 exam questions (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Security Administrator, Zhi Wang, creates the CA Identity Minder roles required to implement delegated administration. Two weeks later, one of these new roles
requires some changes. These changes should be performed by the:
A. Role Owner
B. Role Manager
C. Role Administrator
D. Access Role Membership Approver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which features characterize CA Identity Minder? (Choose three)
A. Assignment of privileges through roles
B. Delegation of the management of users and application access
C. Self-service options that enable users to manage their own accounts
D. User-defined service delivery service catalog that encompasses a menu of services
E. Full automation capabilities for inventory, tracking, maintenance, migration, and security across all enterprise client devices in a single product
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
You are setting up the Bulk Load Client to perform a complete dump of all HR users into CA IdentityMinder. You want to avoid a problem you encountered
previously when a large number of records processed overloaded the server. Which command-line option addresses this issue?
A. imbulkloadclient -T, –transformOnly
B. imbulkloadclient -b, –batchSize <number>
C. imbulkloadclient -i, –inputFile <file, batchsize>
D. imbulkloadclient – e, –endpointlnfoFile <file, number>
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In CA IdentityMinder, which self-service actions can you perform using public tasks? (Choose two)
A. Self-registration
B. Modifying your profile
C. Changing your password
D. Resetting a forgotten password
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which statement about CA Identity Minder end points is TRUE?
A. An endpoint type can only contain one instance of an endpoint.
B. They are generally client operating system versions, such as Windows XP and Red Hat Linux.
C. An endpoint type is the lowest unit of organization in the hierarchical structure managed by the provisioning engine.
D. A specific type of endpoint needs to be enabled on the Provisioning Server to enable CA Id entity Minder to communicate to it.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During the installation, CA Identity Minder creates several database schemas. Later, to provide scalability, you can create a separate database to replace any one
of these, Use the CreateDatabase script to set up a new:
A. Auditing database instance.
B. Workflow database instance.
C. Object Store database instance.
D. Task persistence database instance.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Provisioning Server is TRUE?
A. It manages accounts on end point systems.
B. It communicates directly with the Snapshot Database.
C. It is a required component only if you intend to implement log management.
D. It is an optional component that enables you to fully implement Password Services and Single Sign- on.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which step do you need to perform to configure email server settings for the JBoss application server?
A. Create a new XML file.
B. Modify the mail-service.xml file.
C. Change a property in the console.
D. Modify the Mail Transport Host field for the mail session.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In an email template, what is the purpose of the <% %> tag?
A. Inserts a static text variable
B. Embeds JavaScript into a template
C. Presents event context information
D. Indicates that the template is invalid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which ETAUTIL control statement is used to set the same attribute values for a set of objects?
A. MASSCHANGE
B. EXPLORE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The role model in CA GovernanceMinder can be dynamically updated whenever changes are made in CA Identity Minder using:
A. Smart Provisioning.
B. Role Engineering.
C. Reverse Synchronization.
D. Provisioning Synchronization Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which task do you perform using the CA IdentityMinder Management Console?
A. Manage the Provisioning Server.
B. Customize default roles and tasks.
C. Create and manage the Provisioning Directory.
D. Create an agent that CA SiteMinder can communicate with.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are implementing CA IdentityMinder at Forward Inc., an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. At Forward Inc., a single
managed endpoint containing every person does not exist. However all users are contained in a payroll database, which can become the source of the global
users for the provisioning directory. In this context, the payroll database is known as a:
A. corporate store.
B. primary endpoint.
C. secondary endpoint.
D. operational database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two components communicate using a Connector?
A. Provisioning Server and endpoint
B. Policy Server and Report Server
C. User Store and Provisioning directory
D. Report Server and Snapshot Database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To help ensure role granularity, when you create provisioning roles, which guideline should you follow?
A. Every role should have at least one user.
B. Account templates should be assigned to individual users rather than to roles.
C. Depending on the size of an organization, a role should have between 50 and 200 users.
D. For most organizations, 50 percent of user access is from permanent roles and 50percent is from temporary roles.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
When you configure a WorkPoint manual activity, you can specify multiple Participant Resolvers, Using an order of precedence, CA Identity Minder identifies and
applies the first resolver and ignores any subsequent resolvers. To select the resolver, which order of precedence does CA IdentityMinder follow?

1. Role
2. Filter
3. Group
4. Custom
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 2,3,4,1
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 4,1,2,3Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Forward Inc. is an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. Forward Inc. has asked you to demonstrate how CA IdentityMinder
supports account provisioning. In the CA IdentityMinder configuration that you will use for your demonstration, which component is optional?
A. Provisioning Server
B. Provisioning Directory
C. IdentityMinder Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
When you build the CA IdentityMinder environment, you can configure support for public tasks. To do this, you specify a:
A. group and a name.
B. URL alias and a user.
C. directory and a task list.
D. role definition file and a default role.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
You want to configure password synchronization with UNIX systems. Which component enables CA Identity Minder to authenticate passwords against external
security systems?
A. Credential Provider
B. Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM)
C. Graphical Identification and Authorization (GINA)
D. Java Authentication & Authorization Service (JAAS) Agent
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which optional component of the CA IdentityMinder architecture provides advanced authentication?
A. Connector Server
B. Provisioning Server
C. Resource Proxy Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 23

You are using CA SiteMJnder and CA IdentityMinder in an integrated environment. To configure directory mapping in the CA SiteMinder Policy Server, which
steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Create a Table element for each attribute.
B. Add a response attribute named sm_userdn for the SMJJSERNAME attribute.
C. Add the authentication directory to the CA IdentityMinder environment domain.
D. Use the Reference element for a secondary table to define its relationship to the primary table.
E. In the CA IdentityMinder environment realm, map the authorization directory to the authentication directory.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 24
CA IdentityMinder must integrate with CA SiteMinder in order to:
A. automatically remove white space in passwords.
B. add multiple regular expressions to a single password policy.
C. prevent passwords that are all numeric using a regular expression.
D. specify the maximum number of repeated characters in a password.Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which statement about using Active Directory password synchronization with CA IdentityMinder is TRUE?
A. The new password is only propagated to the user’s native Windows account.
B. Changes to password restrictions on the endpoint are automatically propagated to the CA IdentityMinder Server.
C. The Password Synchronization Agent must be installed on the system on which password changes areto be intercepted.
D. The system on which you are installing the Password Synchronization Agent must be managed by a CA SiteMinder Policy Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
You have deployed CA IdentityMinder with a CA SiteMinder Policy Server. During the second day of testing your installation, you receive a “Not Loaded” error
message when you attempt to log in. You check that the User Store is running. Which other action should you take to investigate this issue?
A. Check the application server log.
B. Verify that theWeb Agent is running correctly.
C. Verify that CA SiteMinder can connect to the User Store.
D. Set the Internet browser option “Show friendly error message”to off to view the status page.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
For workflow installation, many steps that were previously manual are now performed automatically by the installer. Nonetheless, you still need to use the
Management Console to:
A. create the workflow database.
B. populate the database with sample workflows.
C. enable workflow for your CA IdentityMinder environment.
D. create a JDBC data source and connection file for the application server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about Task Execution Web Services (TEWS) is TRUE?
A. Its interface is slower than the native web interface due to XML parsing.
B. It enables a CA SiteMinder Policy Server to support CA Identity Minder.
C. It is used by CA IdentityMinder to export data to CA GovernanceMinder.
D. It translates requests into the internal languages of the provisioning software.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Because of a recent acquisition by Forward Inc., which will add 1800 new users to the system, you decide to use the Bulk Loader to feed the information to CA
IdentityMinder, You will need to prepare a file for the Bulk Loader, containing the relevant details. Which Bulk Loader input file guidelines do you need to follow?
(Choose three)
A. The file should contain no header.
B. A field representing the action is mandatory.
C. Each file must describe a single managed object type.
D. Multivalued attributes must beseparated by a hash (#) symbol.
E. Attribute names should be the physical or well-known names of the managed objects.
Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION: 21
You are creating and modifying configuration item (CI) support data. One of your
external partners manufactures computers. You have defined this partner as a company.
Now, for each type of computer they manufacture and that you use, you will define a:

A. family
B. model
C. category
D. component

Answer: B
QUESTION: 22 In certain situations, CA Service Desk Manager needs to be able to evaluate the current and previous values of certain fields. For previous assignee notifications, which previous values are available? (Choose three)
A. ACTTVE_PREV
B. INNITIATE_PREV
C. DERIVED_PREV
D. PRIORITY_PREV

E. URGENCY_PREV

Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION: 23 Which access type provides access tailored to users who perform frontline support tasks?
A. IT staff
B. Administrator
C. Service desk staff
D. Process management

Answer: C
QUESTION: 24
Which component connects web browsers to the CA Service Desk Object Manager?

A. domsrvr
B. Web Engine
C. Web Screen Painter (WSP)
D. WSP Schema Designer

Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
Security access to CA Service Desk objects from command line utilities:

A. Is configured in the contact record.
B. Is configured in the access type record.
C. Is configured in Active Directory group membership.
D. Cannot be configured because there is no security on the command line utilities.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
What happens when a service type is applied to a ticket? (Choose two)
A. A service contract is created.
B. The delay time clock is started.
C. A configuration item (CI) is created.
D. All the events that comprise the service type are attached to the ticket.

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 27 Your company is increasingly using wireless routers, and you have been asked to incorporate them in the support data for configuration items (CIs). In which records should you store this new category of hardware?
A. CI models
B. CI classes
C. CI families
D. CI devices

Answer: B
QUESTION: 28
Which features characterize data partitions? (Choose two)

A. There are three types
B. They implement role-level security
C. They implement record-level security
D. They can be assigned to contacts and access types

Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 29
In a data partition rule, the logged in user is represented by:

A. $cst
B. @root
C. $home
D. %USERID%
Answer: B

QUESTION: 30 When creating a macro to administer Service Level Agreements (SLAs), what must be associated with the macro?
A. Alert
B. Alarm
C. Event
D. Notification

Answer: C
QUESTION: 31 Which option do you need to customize to send a survey after a certain number of tickets are closed?
A. Submit Cycle
B. Stricter Rules
C. Close Activity
D. Activity Notifications

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT ((§.) character

Answer: D
QUESTION: 33
By default, the Object Manager resides on:

A. the Primary Server
B. the Reporting Server
C. the Secondary Server
D. both the Primary and Secondary Servers
Answer: A
QUESTION: 34 You attach an Incident to a Problem. What happens when you attempt to close the Problem without closing the Incident?
A. An error message appears.
B. The Problem and the Incident close.
C. The Problem closes but not the Incident.
D. The Incident closes but not the Problem.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 35 Which action helps ensure that all aspects of a project are managed while moving equipment?
A. Associating Problems
B. Attaching child Incidents
C. Connecting severity ratings
D. Connecting Change Orders

Answer: D
QUESTION: 36 Key Performance Indicator (KPI) results seem unusual. You need to verify that KPIs are working properly. Which command do you run to verify that the KPI daemon is running?
A. pdm_status
B. pdmjogstat
C. pdm_NX.env
D. pdm key refresh
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37

For the Level 2 Analyst role, on the Change Order Schedule tab, which information can you display using filters? (Choose two)
A. Search order
B. Announcement type
C. Change Order status
D. Change Order priority

Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 38
Which features characterize CA Workflow? (Choose three)

A. It includes inherent security.
B. It is only used for manual tasks.
C. It is external to CA Service Desk.
D. It is used for well defined processes.
E. Users need to be Analysts in CA Service Desk.

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 39
Which CA Service Desk administrative roles are available in CA Service Desk?
(Choose three)

A. Tenant
B. License
C. System
D. Primary
E. Knowledge Management

Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION: 40
How many primary servers are there in a very large CA Service Desk implementation?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

Answer: A

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Question: 1

Requirements planning provides you with a framework in which to define and track the requirements that form the deliverables for your business. Which statements about requirements are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. Requirements are associated with a release.
B. Requirements can be grouped into logical hierarchies.
C. Requirement represents an organizational need or deliverable.
D. For a requirement, ownership with an investment is a required field.
E. A requirement can only be linked to a task at the lowest work breakdown structure (WBS) level of a project.

When you build a portfolio scenario, what does the Efficient Frontier represent?
A. The scenario investments categorized by the life-cycle stage
B. The relative alignment of investments to organizational goals
C. The risk of a portfolio investment at a specific planned net present value (NPV)
D. The set of optimal scenarios for a given set of investments such that no other scenarios exist with less cost and more benefit

Answer: D

Question: 3

A WIP transaction may be adjusted if:
A. It has not been reversed.
B. It has not yet been WIP posted.
C. It is currently in the adjustment process.
D. Previous adjustments have not yet been approved.

Answer: A

Question: 4

Which additional functionality does the Schedule Connect module bring to CA Clarity PPM?
A. Integrates projects with scheduling tools such as Open Workbench
B. Uses interactive Gantt charts and progress bars to visually communicate schedules
C. Enables incidents and other unplanned work to be scheduled like tasks in project work
D. Creates schedules in browsers without you having to download or maintain client software

Answer: A
Question: 5
How many levels can the service hierarchy contain?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 10
D. Unlimited
Question: 6 Answer: D

How do projects differ from programs? (Choose three)
A. Only projects can have staff members.
B. Programs cannot be financially enabled.
C. Programs can have non-milestone tasks.
D. Only projects can apply a work breakdown structure (WBS).
E. Only programs can be opened with read/write access in a scheduler.
Question: 7 Answer: A, B, D

One of the functions you can perform on the CA Clarity PPM Idea object is to configure the:
A. Baseline.
B. Hierarchy.
C. Incident association.
D. Chargeback functionality.

Answer: B
Question: 8
In CA Clarity PPM, which Data tier component enables reporting without affecting day-to-day system use?
A. J2EE
B. Xcelcius
C. Datamart
D. Java Database Connectivity (JDBC)

Answer: C
Question: 9
Which status values are found in the Invalid Transactions Log? (Choose three)
A. New
B. Pending
C. On Hold
D. Rejected
E. Accepted

Answer: A, C, D
Question: 10
What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions.
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer.
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets.
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option.

Answer: C
Question: 11
Which methods are used b post transactions to WIP? (Choose two)
A. Full post
B. Pending post
C. Reverse post
D. Selective post

Answer: A, D
Question: 12
What do you add to a release plan? (Choose two)
A. Investments
B. Charge backs
C. Rate Matrices
D. Requirements
Question: 13 Answer: A, D

Before you can create new incidents in CA Clarity PPM, which action do you need to perform from the Administration menu?
A. Set up incident categories.
B. Set up an incident effort type.
C. Create an incident manager role.
D. Specify tasks and projects that will be associated with incidents.
Answer: A

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QUESTION: 1
In CA Clarity PPM, Ideas enable you to analyze and reject inappropriate or financially risky items before they become investments and deplete vital resources. What is a typical life cycle for an Idea?
A. Open, Converted, Approved, Closed
B. Created, Approved, Converted, Closed
C. Open, Submitted for Approval, Approved, Converted
D. Created, Converted, Submitted for Approval, Rejected
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
Which statement about deploying partitions is TRUE?
A. A resource can only belong to one partition in a model.
B. Fields available for processes are based on partition access.
C. If a process uses stock attributes only, it cannot be shared across partitions.
D. If you create a partition within a partition model, you cannot add or remove partition member Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) units.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 3
Which result does the expression (?=.*[A-Z]) produce?
A. Matches to a digit
B. Matches to a lower case letter
C. Matches to an upper case letter
D. Finds a match that must be a least four or more characters and less than eight characters
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4
Gel Scripts can be executed using the: A. Execute a Process job

B. Execute an Object job
C. Execute Flush Cache job
D. Execute NSQL Query job
Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
If you need to assign a value of Test” to an x variable in a GEL script, which code do you use?
A. x=”Test”
B. var x (Test)
C. <x>Test </x>
D. <core:setvar=V value=”Test”/>
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
For a WebLogic installation, CA Clarity requires that the WebLogic classpath property be modified. Which method do you use to accomplish this?
A. Employ load balancing.
B. Configure the JVM properties.
C. Configure the JDBC connection pool and datasource.
D. Configure the node manager to add the system properties when the server process is launched.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
What is the function of a partition model?
A. It addresses security on a granular level.
B. It replaces the CA Clarity security scheme. C. It controls how CA Clarity manages objects. D. It assigns objects to all other partition models.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 8
Which NSQL keyword identifies the tables that will be needed in the query?
A. FROM B. WHERE C. SELECT
D. GROUP BY
Answer: A

QUESTION: 9
What must be done before an Incident can be converted to a Project or a Task?
A. It must have actual hours entered against it.
B. It must have its status set to Ready to Convert.
C. It must be in the Category named To be Converted.
D. It must be assigned to a project manager and flagged for conversion.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 10
What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions.
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer.
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets.
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 11
Which statement about the CA Clarity PPM architecture on Apache Tomcat is TRUE?

A. CSA manages the database.
B. SQL Server cannot be used as the database.
C. The application and CSA ports are configured in CSA.
D. The customer manages the database and provides the database name and login credentials.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 12
If a scheduled job run has a Waiting status, what does it mean?
A. The scheduled run is in progress.
B. The scheduled run is temporarily stopped.
C. The paused run has restarted and will run at its next scheduled time.
D. The scheduled run has reached its scheduled run date and time, but cannot start executing the job until an incompatible report or job finishes running.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 13
You need to validate the CA Clarity installation by checking details about components, such as home directories, versions, and ports. To help you do this, use the:
A. Beacon
B. Health Report
C. Remove Jobs Log
D. Business Objects Report
Answer: B

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QUESTION: 1
What are the components of a notification rule? (Choose three)

A. Services
B. Contacts
C. Constraints
D. Condition macro
E. Message template
Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION: 2
Level 1 CA Service Desk Analysts can use the CA Service Desk Quick Profile page to:

A. Create templates
B. Search knowledge documents for relevant information
C. Search for information about the end user during a support call.
D. Access the end user’s computer and resolve the problem during the call.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
Each CA Service Desk role record MUST be configured with:

A. One form group
B. One service type
C. Three work shifts,
D. Two data partitions.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 For the Level 2 Analyst role, which additional My Queue items can you view on the Scoreboard? (Choose two)
A. My Incidents
B. My Requests
C. My Problems
D. My Change Orders
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 5
On which tab can you find Incidents related to a Problem?

A. Event Log tab
B. Knowledge tab
C. Attachments tab
D. Attached Incidents tab

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 Which component enables you to track and take action on tickets automatically to help you avoid breaching Service Level Agreements (SLAs)?
A. Notification
B. Service type
C. Change order
D. Object Manager

Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
On which items can you use templates to set values? (Choose three)

A. Log
B. Task
C. Incident
D. Request
E. Change Order

Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION: 8
What happens when First Call Resolution occurs?

A. A Level 2 Analyst resolves Problems.

B. All Workflow tasks are completed before closure.
C. Problems are returned to a Level 1 Analyst Group for closure.
D. Incidents and Requests are opened and closed at once by the Level 1 Analyst Group.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 9 When searching for Incidents, what must you type in the Incident Area field of the Incident List pane to display all Incidents where the Incident area begins with “net”?
A. *net
B. net%
C. %net
D. %net%

Answer: B
QUESTION: 10
You need a combination of private and common categories for Incidents, Problems,
Requests, and changes. To achieve this, you need to set up:

A. Multi-tenancy
B. Service contracts
C. Service contracts with data partitions
D. Service contracts with function access

Answer: A
QUESTION: 11
You are using a classic workflow. To cancel a Change Order, you must:

A. Set the Change Order status to canceled
B. Cancel all tasks, then close the Change Order
C. Complete all tasks, then close the Change Order
D. Run pdm_extract and pdm_load-r to remove the Change Order
Answer: A
QUESTION: 12

Which example represents a hierarchical area code in CA Service Desk?
A. Software.Network
B. Software/Network
C. Software>Network
D. Software- > Network

Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
A valid value for a stored query Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metric type is:

A. Max
B. Sum C.Count
D. Duration

Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Which major layers does CA Service Desk consist of? (Choose four)

A. Client Layer
B. Object Layer
C. Cluster Layer
D. Component Layer
E. Logical Database Layer
F. Physical Database Layer
Answer: A, B, E, F
QUESTION: 15 For the Level 1 Analyst rote, which Scoreboard item shows all unpublished knowledge documents assigned to the Analyst?
A. Open
B. Inbox
C. Incidents
D. Requests
Answer: B
QUESTION: 16
When the status of Incidents is updated, where can you find the status changes?

A. Activity log
B. Activity history
C. Incident versions
D. Incident knowledge

Answer: A
QUESTION: 17 For the Level 1 Analyst role, where can you view the details of a selected Scoreboard item?
A. List pane
B. Knowledge tab
C. Quick Profile tab
D. Knowledge Documents folder

Answer: A
QUESTION: 18 When correctly defined and well functioning, which CA Service Desk feature can help you manage repetitive change procedures on a Change Order?
A. Workflow
B. Service orders
C. Task notifications
D. Configuration Items (CIs)

Answer: A
QUESTION: 19 You need to create new Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) that will provide you with sum, max, and duration metrics. Which type of KPIs provides you with the flexibility to meet this requirement?

A. SQL KPIs
B. Macro KPIs
C. System KPIs
D. Stored Query KPIs

Answer: A
QUESTION: 20 Level 3 CA Service Desk Analyst, Indira Chopra, resolves a ticket and returns it immediately to single point of contact (SPOC), Cliff Warner. Cliff needs to verify with the user that the issue is resolved and:
A. Ask the end user to close the ticket
B. Return the ticket to Indira for closure
C. Close the ticket, which sets it to inactive
D. Set the ticket to pending in case there are related issues

Answer: C

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