Category: CCIE

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cisco-400-101-ccie-routing-and-switching-certification-exam-solution-5-638

QUESTION 14
Which two methods change the IP MTU value for an interface? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the default MTU.
B. Configure the IP system MTU.
C. Configure the interface MTU.
D. Configure the interface IP MTU.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An IOS device configured for IP+MPLS routing uses three different Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) values: The hardware MTU configured with the mtu interface configuration command The IP MTU configured with the ip mtu interface configuration command

The MPLS MTU configured with the mpls mtu interface configuration command

The hardware MTU specifies the maximum packet length the interface can support … or at least that’s the theory behind it. In reality, longer packets can be sent (assuming the hardware interface chipset doesn’t complain); therefore you can configure MPLS MTU to be larger than the interface MTU and still have a working network. Oversized packets might not be received correctly if the interface uses fixed-length buffers; platforms with scatter/gather architecture (also called particle buffers) usually survive incoming oversized packets. IP MTU is used to determine whether am IP packet forwarded through an interface has to be fragmented. It has to be lower or equal to hardware MTU (and this limitation is enforced). If it equals the HW MTU, its value does not appear in the running configuration and it tracks the changes in HW MTU. For example, if you configure ip mtu 1300 on a Serial interface, it will appear in the running configuration as long as the hardware MTU is not equal to 1300 (and will not change as the HW MTU changes). However, as soon as the mtu 1300 is configured, the ip mtu 1300 command disappears from the configuration and the IP MTU yet again tracks the HW MTU.

QUESTION 15
Which implementation can cause packet loss when the network includes asymmetric routing paths?
A. the use of ECMP routing
B. the use of penultimate hop popping
C. the use of Unicast RPF
D. disabling Cisco Express Forwarding

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When administrators use Unicast RPF in strict mode, the packet must be received on the interface that the router would use to forward the return packet. Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router’s choice for sending return traffic. Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are present in the network.

QUESTION 16
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization
1.
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network.

2.
Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network. The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share.
The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.

For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).

For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-25%-25%.

This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load-balanced.
1. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/ destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal-cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

QUESTION 17
Which two mechanisms provide Cisco IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Control Plane and Data Plane Separation IOS XE introduces an opportunity to enable teams to now build drivers for new Data Plane ASICs outside the IOS instance and have them program to a set of standard APIs which in turn enforces Control Plane and Data Plane processing separation. IOS XE accomplishes Control Plane / Data Plane separation through the introduction of the Forwarding and Feature Manager (FFM) and its standard interface to the Forwarding Engine Driver (FED). FFM provides a set of APIs to Control Plane processes. In turn, the FFM programs the Data Plane via the FED and maintains forwarding state for the system. The FED is the instantiation of the hardware driver for the Data Plane and is provided by the platform.

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the PHB class on this flow?
A. EF
B. none
C. AF21
D. CS4

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
This command shows the TOS value in hex, which is 80 in this case. The following chart shows some common DSCP/PHB Class values:

 

pdf_download-100225885-large

 

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

What kind of load balancing is done on this router?
A. per-packet load balancing
B. per-flow load balancing
C. per-label load balancing
D. star round-robin load balancing

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here we can see that for the same traffic source/destination pair of 10.0.0.1 to 14.0.0.2 there were a total of 100 packets (shown by second entry without the *) and that the packets were distributed evenly across the three different outgoing interfaces (34, 33, 33 packets, respectively.
QUESTION 20
What is the most efficient way to confirm whether microbursts of traffic are occurring?
A. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show interface command.
B. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show controllers command.
C. Check the CPU utilization of the router.
D. Sniff the traffic and plot the packet rate over time.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. In order to troubleshoot microbursts, you need a packet sniffer that can capture traffic over a long period of time and allow you to analyze it in the form of a graph which displays the saturation points (packet rate during microbursts versus total available bandwidth). You can eventually trace it to the source causing the bursts (e.g. stock trading applications).
Reference: Adam, Paul (2014-07-12). All-in-One CCIE V5 Written Exam Guide (Kindle Locations 989-994). Kindle Edition.
QUESTION 21
What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle, which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding table.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Causes of Flooding The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch. Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs.

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QUESTION 56
How can traffic be restored if a failure results in loss of working traffic only in a 4F BLSR?
A. Path switching
B. Span switching
C. Ring switching
D. Label switching
E. Node switching

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is the effective bandwidth of a 6 node, four-fiber OC-48 BLSR ring if all the traffic on the ring is homed back to one node (hub-and-spoke) without Protection Channel Access (PCA)?
A. STS-24
B. STS-48
C. STS-96
D. STS-192

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Exhibit:

In the figure, what IP address would you assign to a desktop connected to the TCC port on node E . Would a static route be needed to allow access to other nodes, and in which node would you install it?
A. Any Pingable IP address from Telnet session in Site Bravo SWT 1, No static route needed to allow access to other nodes.
B. 192.168.1.101/24, Yes in Node E, local subnet pointed to 192.168.1.254.
C. 192.168.1.152/24, No Static route needed to allow access to other nodes.
D. 192.168.1.14/24, No Static route needed to allow access to other nodes.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
To set the SONET overhead bytes in the frame header to meet a specific standards requirement or to ensure interoperability with another vendor’s equipment, use what configuration command line?
A. pos flag in the global
B. pos flag in the interface
C. pos flag-type in the global
D. pos flag-type in the interface

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
Which describe the benefits that FICON has over ESCON?
A. Increased channel capacity due to new architecture
B. Increased channel capacity due to faster physical link rates
C. Increased channel capacity due to Upper Level Protocol Mapping
D. Increased channel capacity due to improved SCSI header re-write algorithms
E. FICON offers no significant advantage over ESCON

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 61
What is the power at the output ports of a 90%-10% Tee coupler that has an 80 m W light source and 1 dB of excess loss?
A. 57.2 m W and 6.3 m W
B. 72 m W and 8 m W
C. 90.6 m W 10.2 m W
D. 60.3 m W 3.2 m W

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
In order to avoid loops when sending routing updates, what is the correct technique to prevent a network from being forwarded on the same interface it is learned?
A. Poison Reverse
B. The use of access-lists used with distribute-list
C. Split Horizon
D. This is not a problem, since this cannot happen.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
ML-series QoS handling of multicast and broadcast traffic involves:
A. Putting all multicast and broadcast traffic in its own queue and giving it priority over other traffic.
B. Putting multicast and broadcast traffic in its own queue and allocating a 10% port bandwidth guarantee.
C. Configuration using the “bandwidth” command allowing QoS guarantees for multicast and broadcast traffic.
D. All multicast and broadcast being treated as best effort (BE) traffic.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
What is an active filter?
A. Prisms
B. Dielectric thin film interface filter
C. Diffraction grating
D. Semi-conductor filter
E. Bragg Grating
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
For SONET Ring switching, the 50ms switch time applies to:
A. 50 ms, not including detection time
B. For rings smaller than 100km
C. For rings smaller than 2000km
D. Up to 64 nodes
E. Up to 254 nodes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What feature of the spatial reuse protocol used in DPT allows for bandwidth reuse on the ring?
A. Fairness algorithm
B. Token controlled access
C. Packet destination stripping
D. Automatic topology discovery
E. Multicast origination stripping

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
What part of the SONET frame is used to overcome the need to buffer information in order to have fixed information payloads?
A. Section Overhead
B. Line Overhead
C. Pointers
D. Path Overhead
E. H2 and STS-1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
The total capacity of a 2F MS-SPRing network of N nodes operating as MS-SPRing nodes operating at a ring speed of STM-4 in VC4 units is: (NOTE: PT=Pass Through traffic)
A. 2 x N – PT
B. 4 x N – PT
C. 8 x N – PT
D. Depends on the traffic pattern
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
In Fiber optic communication systems, a pulse is said to be chirped if its carrier frequency changes with:
A. Distance
B. Time
C. Group Delay
D. Velocity
E. Wavelength

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
With CGMP enabled, which are unique about the following MAC address range: 01-00-5E-00-00-00 to 01-00-5E-00-00-FF? (multiple answer)
A. CGMP does not prune those MAC addresses.
B. They contain the CGMP Multicast addresses for the IGMP Leaves and IGMP Queries.
C. CGMP filters those MAC addresses when they arrive at the processor
D. They are the reserved IP addresses of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 for forwarding local IP multicast traffic in a single Layer 3 hop.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 71
What is NOT a characteristic of Direct attached Storage (DAS)?
A. High speed
B. Low latency
C. Limited distance
D. Re-routable protection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
On each LAN segment with multiple bridges running spanning tree, the bridge closest to the:
A. Designated bridge is selected as root bridge
B. Root bridge is selected as designated bridge
C. Root bridge is not selected as designated bridge
D. Designated bridge is not selected as root bridge

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
What part of the SONET overhead would an Add/ Drop Multiplexer read/write?
A. Section Overhead
B. Information Payload
C. Path Overhead
D. Line Overhead
E. Does not read the SONET frame

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 74
What condition is NOT a valid criterion for initiating a BLSR protection switch?
A. Reception of an AIS (all 1’s) signal
B. High path bit-error-rate (BER) indicated in the B3 byte
C. Loss-of-frame (LOF) alarm
D. Request for a line switch in the K1 byte
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The TCP PUSH flag indicates:
A. The data in the TCP receive buffer should be sent to the application listening to this TCP connection without waiting for further data.
B. Any data being buffered by routers between the source and destination for this connection should be sent immediately.
C. The sender should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
D. This session is about to end.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
The ML-series Ethernet card provides up to how many active 802.1Q in Q instances per card?
A. 512
B. 4095
C. 255
D. 1024

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is an Inter Switch Link (ISL)?
A. A protocol to interconnect switches across ATM only
B. A protocol to interconnect switches across FDDI only
C. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches
D. A Cisco proprietary protocol for interconnecting multiple switches
E. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches across Fast Ethernet

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Of the four types of SONET transmission equipment, what performs the 3R (Refresh/ Re-amplify, Reshape, Retime) function?
A. Path Terminating Equipment
B. SONET Terminating Equipment
C. Regenerator
D. Add/Drop Multiplexer
E. Digital Cross-Connect System
F. Line Multiplexing Equipment
G. Post/PreAmplifier
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
In Frame Relay, the FECN bit is set by:
A. The Frame Relay network, to inform the DTE receiving the frame that congestion was experienced in the path from source to destination
B. The Frame Relay network, in frames traveling in the opposite direction from those frames that encountered congestion
C. The receiving DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back
D. The sending DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back
E. Any device that uses an extended DLCI address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
Exhibit: The network shown supports Synchronous Status Messaging (SSM), which byte supplied by the ADM at Site B in both directions in the section overhead is used for transporting SSM messages?

A. S1
B. J1
C. K2
D. Z1
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 81
What is the transmission limitation on a single 1310 nm signal, at OC-192 bit-rate, over certified SMF-28 fiber using no dispersion compensation?
A. Four-wave mixing
B. Polarization-mode dispersion
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Attenuation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
In SDH an AU-4 unit is formed by:
A. Adding a C12 to its path overhead
B. Adding a VC4 to a VC4 pointer
C. Multiplexing TU12s
D. Combining a VC3 and its VC3 pointer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
A router is set up to redistribute routing updates from OSPF to RIP. What answer best describes issues the network administrator needs to be aware of?
A. Split Horizon, Poison Reverse, Holddown
B. Slow convergence, limited hop-count metric, lack of network mask information, periodic broadcasts
C. None, OSPF is a link-state routing protocol which overcomes issues found in RIP.
D. Difference in metrics (e.g. hops vs. cost), subnet mask allocation/addressing (e.g. VLSM vs. fixed subnet mask length), routing protocol summarization (e.g. network boundaries)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which three are types of payloads carried by path signal label byte C2?
A. 0x16 scrambled POS
B. 0x13 ATM
C. 0x13 unscrambled POS
D. 0xCF scrambled POS
E. 0xCF unscrambled POS

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 85
How has the MDS 9000 been engineered to promote the use of DWDM for SAN extension?
A. The MDS 9000 has eliminated “Fibre Channel Droop” through proxy acknowledgements of frame arrivals.
B. The MDS 9000 has implemented buffer to buffer credits per port on the 16 port line card to allow for long distances.
C. The effects of Fibre Channel Droop are exaggerated and by using light amplification can be nullified.
D. DWDM has increased available lamdas in order to simultaneously send data on a second lamda, thereby eliminating fibre channel droop.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
The configuration register does NOT retain settings for:
A. An enabled ‘Break’ key
B. The console baud rate
C. The boot method
D. An enabled AUX port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Exhibit: The graph represents optical signal power versus wavelength measurement from 1550nm to 1560nm. The spectral characteristic in the 1558nm to 1559nm range is commonly known as:

A. Noise floor
B. High dispersion region
C. Passband
D. Gain band
E. Attenuation band

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
What statement about DCC tunneling in the ONS 15454 is true?
A. Only the first STS frame in any OC-n signal is used for tunneling.
B. For security reasons, the 15454 randomly assigns an STS frame from within any OC-n signal to be used for tunneling.
C. A different STS frame is used on each section of the ring, to prevent overlap or conflict on the protection path.
D. Only the last STS frame in any OC-n signal is used for tunneling (this feature is also used as a bit rate indicator).

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
The Gigabit Ethernet Transponder mode on the G-series card provides:
A. Mapping of a single line-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto individual CWDM or DWDM line-side wavelengths, requiring cross connect capacity.
B. Mapping of up to 2 line-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto individual CWDM or DWDM line-side wavelengths without requiring cross connect capacity.
C. Mapping of up to 3 line-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto individual CWDM or DWDM line-side wavelengths, requiring cross connect capacity.
D. Mapping of up to 4 sub-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto two individual CWDM or DWDM line side wavelengths without requiring cross connect capacity.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
In SDH the function of the K1-K2 bytes is to:
A. Specify the level of synchronization of the signal
B. Provide a 64kbit/s voice channel for communication between multiplexers
C. Provide multiplexer section error monitoring using bit interleaved parity
D. Provide automatic protection switching signaling between two MSTEs

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 91
Exhibit:

If a router had the three routes listed, which one of the routes would forward a packet destined for 10.1.1.1?
A. 10.1.0.0/16 through EIGRP, because EIGRP routes are always preferred over OSPF or static routes.
B. 10.1.0.0/16 static, because static routes are always preferred over OSPF or EIGRP routes.
C. 10.1.1.0/24 through OSPF because the route with the longest prefix is always chosen.
D. Whichever route appears in the routing table first.
E. The router will load share between the 10.1.0.0/16 route through EIGRP and the 10.1.0.0/16 static route.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Exhibit:

The graph represents optical signal power versus wavelength measurement from 1550nm to 1560nm.
What is the worst case optical signal-to-noise ratio (OSNR) of Channel 1 at 0.5nm away from the peak?

A. 21dB
B. 24dB
C. 27dB
D. 30dB
E. 33dB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
Exhibit: The exhibit shows OC-12 POS connections across various transport media. Which are correct timing configurations for 7600 interfaces (A) and (B)? (Note: connection between routers B and C is set to internal timing.)

A. Line
B. Internal
C. External
D. Looped
E. Internal and external

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 94
Using the ITU-T channel plan recommendation defined in G.692, if one of the channels has a frequency of 196.10THz (equivalent to 1528.77nm), then what is the wavelength of the next lower frequency based on a 50GHz channel plan?
A. 1527.99nm
B. 1528.38nm
C. 1529.16nm
D. 1529.55nm
E. 1529.94nm
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Exhibit: In a customer access ring environment, what type of transport architecture is best suited for creating an OC-12 RPR ring with 4 Cisco 12000 nodes?

A. It depends upon the traffic flow.
B. Meshed fiber with DWDM
C. SONET OC-12 2F-BLSR ring
D. SONET OC-12 2F-UPSR ring
E. Hub and spoke fiber with DWDM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 96
Exhibit: With a router connected to node E, and a laptop connected to node C, in what node would you put a static route to access this network from an external IP network?

A. None. A static route is only required when OSPF is disabled on the DCC and each node is a on a different subnet.
B. In Node E
C. In Node B
D. In Nodes B and D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
What do directly modulated transponders vary to the laser in order to transmit an optical signal?
A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Current
D. Output signal
E. Temperature
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
What is the difference in power at the input and the output of the device under test?
A. Cross Talk
B. Return Loss
C. Insertion Loss
D. Passband
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which three are examples of a non-linear effect? (Choose Three)
A. Self-phase modulation
B. Four-wave mixing
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Stimulated Brillioun Scattering
E. Attenuation

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 100
Exhibit:

Routers CK5 and CK6 are running HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol). Router CK5 has a higher priority, and both routers have standby preempt configured. Since Router CK5 is normally the active router, what IP address should Host G use for its default gateway?
A. 10.1.3.1
B. Router CK5 ‘s IP address, since it is normally active; Router CK6 will take over Router CK5 ‘s address if it fails.
C. Router CK6 ‘s IP address; the active router will take over the standby router’s IP address until it fails
D. The virtual address configured when enabling HSRP
E. The virtual address assigned by HSRP; this address is dependent on the group number configured

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
Which output will the EEM applet in the exhibit produce?
Case Study Title (Case Study):

A. The output of show version will be executed every 5 hours.
B. The output of show log will be executed every 5 hours.
C. The output of show log will be executed every Friday.
D. The output of show log will be executed every 5 minutes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Why is the interface in the up/down state?

A. There is no physical layer connection.
B. A span session has been configured with g5/2 as the destination.
C. There were too many input drops on the interface.
D. A span session has been configured with g5/2 as the source
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SPAN Destination Port Up/Down When ports are spanned for monitoring, the port state shows as UP/DOWN. When you configure a SPAN session to monitor the port, the destination interface shows the state down (monitoring), by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. The port as up/down monitoring is normal.
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/ products_tech_note09186a008015c612.shtml#topic8-8
QUESTION 53
You are investigating a performance problem between two hosts. You have enabled NetFlow.
What is most likely the cause of this issue?

A. A firewall is stripping the TCP MSS option.
B. A firewall is stripping the IP MSS option.
C. An IPS is stripping the TCP MSS option.
D. There is a VPN link causing low MTU.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E. You must configure the MTU on the links on the router.
QUESTION 54
Multicast is being deployed in the network, and only ip pim sparse-dense mode has been configured on all interfaces in the network to support a new video streaming application. No other multicast configuration was applied anywhere in the network. Since enabling multicast, the network monitoring tools show periodic spikes in link utilization throughout the network, even in areas where the video application is not being used. What could be a possible cause?
A. PIM sparse mode is being used.
B. PIM dense mode is being used.
C. The BGP multicast address family has not been configured.
D. IGMP version 3 is being used.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E. IP PIM neighbor filters have not been applied.
QUESTION 55
Which two attributes need to match for two switches to become members of the same MST region? (Choose two.)
A. the table of 4096 elements that map the respective VLAN to STP instance number
B. VTP version
C. configuration revision number
D. native VLAN ID
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
An administrator of a peer-to-peer server application reports that the maximum bandwidth that his application receives is 90 Mb/s. You have an 8-port, 100-Mb/s EtherChannel bundle on the switching infrastructure between the two servers, resulting in a bidirectional throughput of more than what is recorded. Which two solutions would allow for more bandwidth for the application? (Choose two.)
A. change the EtherChannel default hashing algorithm from XOR to use source port Layer 4 port load balancing to better load balance the traffic
B. change the EtherChannel default hashing algorithm from XOR to use destination Layer 4 port load balancing to better load balance the traffic
C. have the application recoded to use multiple connections instead of a single connection so EtherChannel can better load balance the traffic
D. upgrade the EtherChannel bundle to a single gigabit link because EtherChannel is not well suited for single-connection traffic
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D. upgrade the CPU and memory of the compute devices so they can better process traffic
QUESTION 57
Which two are natively included by the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two.)
A. instances can control a selection of VLANs
B. load balancing
C. fast transition to forwarding state
D. backbone, uplink, and portfast (or equivalent)
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E. root, loop, and BPDU guard (or equivalent)
QUESTION 58
Which three statements are true about policing? (Choose three.)
A. Out-of-profile packets are queued.
B. It causes TCP retransmits.
C. It does not respond to BECN and foresight messages.
D. It uses a single- and two-bucket mechanism for metering.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C. Marking and remarking are not supported.
QUESTION 59
Which command can be used to filter a RIPv6 route from getting installed in the routing table?
A. ipv6 router rip ccie distribute-list..
B. ipv6 router rip ccie offset-list..
C. interface e0/0 ipv6 rip ccie distribute-list..
D. interface e0/0 ipv6 rip ccie advertise..
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Filtering IPv6 RIP Routing Updates Route filtering using distribute lists provides control over the routes RIP receives and advertises. This control may be exercised globally or per interface. Filtering is controlled by IPv6 distribute lists. Input distribute lists control route reception, and input filtering is applied to advertisements received from neighbors. Only those routes that pass input filtering will be inserted in the RIP local routing table and become candidates for insertion into the IPv6 routing table. Output distribute lists control route advertisement; Output filtering is applied to route advertisements sent to neighbors. Only those routes passing output filtering will be advertised. Global distribute lists (which are distribute lists that do not apply to a specified interface) apply to all interfaces. If a distribute list specifies an interface, then that distribute list applies only to that interface. An interface distribute list always takes precedence. For example, for a route received at an interface, with the interface filter set to deny, and the global filter set to permit, the route is blocked, the interface filter is passed, the global filter is blocked, and the route is passed. IPv6 prefix lists are used to specify certain prefixes or a range of prefixes that must be matched before a permit or deny statement can be applied. Two operand keywords can be used to designate a range of prefix lengths to be matched. A prefix length of less than, or equal to, a value is configured with the le keyword. A prefix length greater than, or equal to, a value is specified using the ge keyword. The ge and le keywords can be used to specify the range of the prefix length to be matched in more detail than the usual ipv6-prefix/prefix-length argument. For a candidate prefix to match against a prefix list entry three conditions can exist: The candidate prefix must match the specified prefix list and prefix length entry. The value of the optional le keyword specifies the range of allowed prefix lengths from the prefixlength argument up to, and including, the value of the le keyword. The value of the optional ge keyword specifies the range of allowed prefix lengths from the value of the ge keyword up to, and including, 128. Note
The first condition must match before the other conditions take effect.
An exact match is assumed when the ge or le keywords are not specified. If only one keyword
operand is specified then the condition for that keyword is applied, and the other condition is not
applied. The prefix-length value must be less than the ge value. The ge value must be less than,
or equal to, the le value. The le value must be less than or equal to 128.
SUMMARY STEPS

1.
enable

2.
configure terminal

3.
ipv6 prefix list prefix-list-name [seq seq-number] {deny ipv6-prefix/prefix-length | descriptiontext} [ge gevalue] [le le-value]

4.
ipv6 prefix list prefix-list-name [seq seq-number] {permit ipv6-prefix/prefix-length | description text} [ge gevalue] [le le-value]

5.
Repeat Steps 3 and 4 as many times as necessary to build the prefix list.

6.
ipv6 router rip name

7.
distribute-list prefix-list prefix-list-name {in | out} [interface-type interface-number] Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/ip6-rip.html
QUESTION 60
Which three are needed to run VRF lite for IPv6 on a router? (Choose three.)
A. VRF definition for IPv6
B. MP BGP for IPv6
C. VRF-enabled routing protocol
D. VRF-enabled interface
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C. LDP
Explanation:
The word VRF stands for Virtual Routing and Forwarding, this feature is used to create multiple instances of the routing table on the same routing device. VRFs are usually used in conjunction with MPLS VPN to separate the traffic of multiple MPLS VPN customers. VRF Lite feature is part of Cisco*s network virtualization portfolio. VRF Lite means VRF without the need to run MPLS in the network. VRF Lite allows the network administrator to create multiple routing instances on the same routing device within the enterprise. VRF Lite can be useful when you need to isolate traffic between two networks sharing the same routing platform or if you have multiple networks with overlapping addresses sharing the same physical network. Multiple instances of routing protocols can be used for different VRFs on the same device to exchange routes dynamically with a direct connected device VRF Lite Configuration: R2 is connected via Ethernet to R5. Two VRFs (VRF-LITE-A & B) are configured to demonstrate L3 traffic isolation. I am using static routes for this example but dynamic routing protocols can be used. R2 Configuration: ip vrf VRF-LITE-A rd 100:1 ! ip vrf VRF-LITE-B rd 100:2 !– Assign interfaces to VRF interface FastEthernet0/1.25 encapsulation dot1Q 25 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-A ip address 25.25.25.2 255.255.255.0 ! interface FastEthernet0/1.52 encapsulation dot1Q 52 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-B ip address 52.52.52.2 255.255.255.0 interface Loopback20 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-A ip address 20.20.20.20 255.255.255.255 ! interface Loopback22 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-B ip address 22.22.22.22 255.255.255.255 ip route vrf VRF-LITE-A 50.50.50.50 255.255.255.255 25.25.25.5 ip route vrf VRF-LITE-B 55.55.55.55 255.255.255.255 52.52.52.5 R5 Configuration: ip vrf VRF-LITE-A rd 100:1 ! ip vrf VRF-LITE-B rd 100:2 interface Loopback50 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-A ip address 50.50.50.50 255.255.255.255 ! interface Loopback55 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-B ip address 55.55.55.55 255.255.255.255 ! interface FastEthernet0/1.25 encapsulation dot1Q 25 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-A ip address 25.25.25.5 255.255.255.0 ! interface FastEthernet0/1.52 encapsulation dot1Q 52 ip vrf forwarding VRF-LITE-B ip address 52.52.52.5 255.255.255.0 ip route vrf VRF-LITE-A 20.20.20.20 255.255.255.255 25.25.25.2 ip route vrf VRF-LITE-B 22.22.22.22 255.255.255.255 52.52.52.2 Operation Verification: The following tests were taken from R2 only, the same can be done on R5 for verification. R2#sh ip route vrf VRF-LITE-A Routing Table: VRF-LITE-A !– output omitted———-Gateway of last resort is not set 50.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets S 50.50.50.50 [1/0] via 25.25.25.5 20.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 20.20.20.20 is directly connected, Loopback20 25.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 25.25.25.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1.25 R2#sh ip route vrf VRF-LITE-B Routing Table: VRF-LITE-B !–output omitted———-Gateway of last resort is not set 55.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets S 55.55.55.55 [1/0] via 52.52.52.5 52.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 52.52.52.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1.52 22.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 22.22.22.22 is directly connected, Loopback22 R2#ping 50.50.50.50 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 50.50.50.50, timeout is 2 seconds: Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) R2#ping vrf VRF-LITE-A 50.50.50.50 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 50.50.50.50, timeout is 2 seconds:
!!!!!
Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 32/143/396 ms
R2#ping 55.55.55.55
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 55.55.55.55, timeout is 2 seconds:
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
R2#ping vrf VRF-LITE-B 55.55.55.55
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 55.55.55.55, timeout is 2 seconds:
!!!!!
Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 20/133/340 ms
Reference

VRF Lite

QUESTION 61
Which information will the Cisco IOS command show ip ospf rib display?
A. only the local OSPF routes
B. only the OSPF routes installed in the routing table
C. only the remotely learned OSPF routes
D. all the OSPF routes from the OSPF database that are eligible to be put in the routing table
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Show ip ospf rib To display information for the OSPF local Routing Information Base (RIB) or locally redistributed routes, use the show ip ospf rib command in privileged EXEC mode. Show ip ospf process-id rib [redistribution] [network-prefix] [network-mask] [detail] Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/iproute_ospf/command/reference/iro_osp3.html
QUESTION 62
What will happen?

A. EIGRP keeps on retransmitting the reliable EIGRP packets forever.
B. EIGRP will retransmit the reliable EIGRP packets up to 16 times and then delete the related prefixes.
C. EIGRP will retransmit the reliable EIGRP packets up to 16 times and then reset the EIGRP neighbor
11.1.3.2.
D. The EIGRP neighbor 11.1.3.2 goes down when the hold time reaches 0, which is 12 seconds from now.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the Cisco IOS command to turn on explicit null forwarding by LDP?
A. ldp explicit-null
B. mpls forwarding explicit-null
C. mpls ldp advertise-labels explicit null
D. mpls ldp explicit-null
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When you issue the mpls ldp explicit-null command, Explicit Null is advertised in place of Implicit Null for directly connected prefixes. SUMMARY STEPS
1.
enable
2.
configure terminal
3.
mpls ip
4.
mpls label protocol {ldp | tdp | both}
5.
interface type number
6.
mpls ip
7.
exit
8.
mpls ldp explicit-null [for prefix-acl | to peer-acl | for prefix-acl to peer-acl]
9.
exit
10.
show mpls forwarding-table [network {mask | length} | labels label [- label] | interface interface |
next-hop address | lsp-tunnel [tunnel-id]] [vrf vpn-name] [detail]
Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t2/ftldp41.html

QUESTION 64
Which statement is correct about this configuration?

A. This is not a legal configuration.
B. The RD is a type 0 RD.
C. The RD is a type 1 RD.
D. The RD is a type 2 RD.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E. This is a special RD that is used only for management VRFs.

Explanation:
The route distinguisher (RD) is an 8-octet value consisting of 2 major fields, the Type Field (2
octets) and Value
Field (6 octets). The type field determines how the value field should be interpreted. The three
Type values, as defined in the internet draft, are:
Type 0:
Type Field (2 octets)
Administrator subfield (2 octets)
Assigned number subfield (4 octets)
The administrator field must contain an AS number (using private AS numbers is discouraged).
The Assigned field contains a number assigned by the service provider.
Type 1:
Type Field (2 octets)
Administrator subfield (4 octets)
Assigned number subfield (2 octets)
The administrator field must contain an IP address (using private IP address space is
discouraged). The
Assigned field contains a number assigned by the service provider.
Type 2:
Type Field (2 octets)
Administrator subfield (4 octets)
Assigned number subfield (2 octets)
The administrator field must contain a 4-octet AS number (using private AS numbers is
discouraged). The
Assigned field contains a number assigned by the service provider.
Reference
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Route_distinguisher

QUESTION 65
What will happen if the link between RTA and RTE fails?
Case Study Title (Case Study):

A. Area 1 will be split into two between RTB-RTF-RTE and RTG-RTA, so these separate areas will not be able to communicate with each other.
B. Area 1 will be split into two between RTB-RTF-RTE and RTG-RTA, and to avoid communication issues a virtual link between RTA and RTB needs to be configured.
C. Area 1 will be split into two between RTB-RTF-RTE and RTG-RTA, and duplicate LSAs from Area 1 will flood OSPF Area 0.
D. Area 1 will be split into two between RTB-RTF-RTE and RTG-RTA, and OSPF will work just fine.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As RTE will no longer have a direct connection to RTA Area 1 will be split into two groups. Routers RTA & RTG in one group and Routers RTB, RTE, & RTF in the other group. For router RTE to access RTA it will now need to traverse Area 0.

QUESTION 66
All iBGP routes should have the iBGP peer as the next hop address. Why is this not the case for BGP routes learned between R1 and R2?
Case Study Title (Case Study):

A. R2 is missing the next-hop-self option under the neighbor command for R1
B. ISP-A is missing the next-hop-self option under the neighbor command for R1
C. ISP-B is missing the next-hop-self option under the neighbor command for R1
D. R2, ISP-A, and ISP-B are missing the next-hop-self option under the neighbor command for R1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
What does “(192.168.1.1)” indicate in the output?

A. the BGP router ID of the eBGP peer
B. the advertising route reflector cluster-id
C. the router originating this prefix
D. the BGP router ID of the iBGP peer
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E. our local router ID
F. the BGP next hop for this route
QUESTION 68
By default, why will BGP choose a locally originated route over any iBGP or eBGP learned route?

A. The IGP metric to the next hop is always shorter.
B. Locally originated routes have a better AD than eBGP or iBGP routes.
C. All locally originated routes have a better origin code.
D. Locally originated routes have a weight of 32, 768.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D. Locally originated routes have a higher metric.
QUESTION 69
How does an IPv6 router deal with a packet that is larger than the outgoing interface MTU?
A. It will fragment the packet at Layer 2.
B. It will fragment the packet at Layer 3.
C. It will drop the packet and send an ICMPv6 message “packet too big” back to the source.
D. It will drop the packet.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A Packet Too Big MUST be sent by a router in response to a packet that it cannot forward because the packet is larger than the MTU of the outgoing link. The information in this message is used as part of the Path MTU Discovery process [PMTU]. Originating a Packet Too Big Message makes an exception to one of the rules as to when to originate an ICMPv6 error message. Unlike other messages, it is sent in response to a packet received with an IPv6 multicast destination address, or with a link-layer multicast or link-layer broadcast address. Reference http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc4443#section-3.2
QUESTION 70
What does a unicast prefix-based IPv6 multicast address start with?
A. FF80
B. FF3
C. FF
D. FF7
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The unicast prefix-based IPv6 multicast address format supports Source-specific multicast
addresses, as defined by [SSM ARCH]. To accomplish this, a node MUST:
These settings create an SSM range of FF3x::/32 (where ‘x’ is any valid scope value). The source
address field in the IPv6 header identifies the owner of the multicast address. (RFC3306)

QUESTION 71
AS65000 has core network P1 – P6. The eBGP peers to another AS are through ASBR1-2 and ASBR3-4. All business and residential customer POPs are connected to the P1 – P2 core.
AS65000 has decided to enable MPLS LDP on all BGP routers, and disable BGP on the core network (P1
-P6). What is the drawback of this BGP core-free network?
Case Study Title (Case Study):

A. MPLS LDP is slower compared to BGP.
B. All IP addresses of nodes and links within AS65000 are exposed to any external AS.
C. The BGP configuration must be full-mesh between the ASBR and PE routers.
D. The core router will not be involved in the BGP path selection process.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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